Many Bible readers have been perplexed here by what, at first glance, seems to be a plain contradiction. The one statement says the companions of Paul heard a voice; the other, that they did not hear the voice of Him who spoke to Paul. The student who reads Greek can easily solve the difficulty. The construction of the verb "to hear" (akouo) is not the same in both accounts. Acts 9:7 uses it with the genitive, Acts 22:9 with the accusative. the construction with the genitive simply expresses that something is being heard or that certain sounds reach the ear; nothing is indicated as to whether a person understands what is heard. The construction with the accusative, however, describes a hearing which includes mental apprehension of the message spoken. Therefore it becomes evident that the two passages are not contradictory. Acts22:9 does not deny that the associates of Paul heard certain sounds, it simply declared that they did not hear in such a way as to understand what was being said. Our English idiom in this case simply is not as expressive as Greek. Another explanation, which many scholars prefer, is that the phrase "hearing a voice" in Acts 9:7 could mean hearing Paul's voice but not hearing the voice that spoke to Paul. And though Paul falls to the ground, it does not say the others did NOT fall to the ground, so there is no inconsistency there either.
There are many SEEMING inconsistencies in the Bible, when looked at a bit closer, can be resolved, and many books have been written to help us understand them better. The book "Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions" by William Arndt is among those. If you are honestly looking for answers, and not just 'attacking' the Bible as Feathers and myself kinda get that feeling from your posts, the answers are there. Hope that helps.