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Moses' new prophet
- Thread starter gnostic
- Start date
Smoke
Done here.
It's bogus in the sense that Moses never said it; the book of Deuteronomy was a later creation. I believe -- and I think it's obvious, even if nobody but Kai agreesbeckysoup61 said:
-- that the writer was using this fictional discourse to comment on his own time. That is, he wasn't predicting a prophet to come; he was pointing up the importance of a prophet who had already appeared.
sandy whitelinger
Veteran Member
gnostic said:
I can't say I've read all the 9 pages of post but I did glance and I did not ssee the correct answer. the book of Acts solves the dilemma:
"[20] And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you:
[21] Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began.
[22] For Moses truly said unto the fathers, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; him shall ye hear in all things whatsoever he shall say unto you." Acts 3 KJV
Bishka
Veteran Member
MidnightBlue said:It's bogus in the sense that Moses never said it; the book of Deuteronomy was a later creation. I believe -- and I think it's obvious, even if nobody but Kai agrees
That's where you and me differ, I do beieve that Deut. was written by Moses and that he was prophecying.
It's nice though, to have differing opinons and points-of-view.
Bishka
Veteran Member
This is in response to Comet of how he says that Elijah was the one and only one that fufilled the prophecy put down in Deut. and how Joshua could not have possibly fufilled it.
Joshua and Moses are mentioned several times in conjection with each other, as follows:
In Exodus 24:13 (KJV), it clearly states that Joshua was Moses's minister. Minister usually denotes a preisthood calling or a preisthood office.
In Exodus 33:11, Moses was speaking to the Lord face to face, and usually there is absolutley no one in his{Moses's} presence when he speaks to the Lord. In this verse, it clearly states that Joshua did not depart from the tabernacle where Moses was speaking to the Lord. This verse can also imply that perhaps Joshua stayed after Moses 'turned again into the camp' and talked with the Lord as Moses did.
In Numbers 27:18, the Lord explicity states to Moses that he should take Joshua, who is a man in the spirit, and that Moses should lay his hands upon Joshua. Laying on of hands was usually a preisthood ordinance and transferred the power and authority of the preisthood (which Moses, as the prophet held).
In Number 27:22, Moses is just fufilling what the Lord told him to do in verse 18
In Deuteronomy 31:14, the Lord commands Moses to call Joshua unto the tabernacle so that the Lord may give Joshua a charge.
In Deuteronomy 34:9, it states that Joshua was full of the spirit of wisdom, because Moses had laid his hands upon him and that the children of Israel hearkened unto Joshua. It states that Joshua does what the Lord commands him, just as Moses did to the Lord.
In the book of Joshua 1:1, the Lord speaks directly unto Joshua, and it mentions that Joshua was Moses' minister
In Joshua 3:7, the Lord again speaks unto Joshua and tells Joshua that He{the Lord} is going to maginify Joshua in the sight of Israel so that the children of Israel will know that the Lord is with Joshua, just as the Lord was with Moses.
document.write(drawVerse(9,20652));
In Joshua 4:14, the promise the Lord has just made unto Joshua, to maginify him comes to pass. Again, there is another comparision to Moses.
The point of this post is really just to point out that Joshua could of been who Moses was talking about, and the only thing that he has going against him is a small passage of scripture which states:
Joshua did none of these things. Whenever Joshua is talking for the Lord it is expressly stated that the Lord commanded him to do such. There is not talk at all of Joshua speaking in the name of other gods. The last little bit, "....that prophet shall die..." Could mean pretty much anything, it doesn't specify whether it is a spiritual death or a physical death, so that verse cannot beheld against Joshua until, you, Comet, can prove whether it is a physical or spiritual death.
Joshua and Moses are mentioned several times in conjection with each other, as follows:
In Exodus 24:13 (KJV), it clearly states that Joshua was Moses's minister. Minister usually denotes a preisthood calling or a preisthood office.
In Exodus 33:11, Moses was speaking to the Lord face to face, and usually there is absolutley no one in his{Moses's} presence when he speaks to the Lord. In this verse, it clearly states that Joshua did not depart from the tabernacle where Moses was speaking to the Lord. This verse can also imply that perhaps Joshua stayed after Moses 'turned again into the camp' and talked with the Lord as Moses did.
In Numbers 27:18, the Lord explicity states to Moses that he should take Joshua, who is a man in the spirit, and that Moses should lay his hands upon Joshua. Laying on of hands was usually a preisthood ordinance and transferred the power and authority of the preisthood (which Moses, as the prophet held).
In Number 27:22, Moses is just fufilling what the Lord told him to do in verse 18
In Deuteronomy 31:14, the Lord commands Moses to call Joshua unto the tabernacle so that the Lord may give Joshua a charge.
In Deuteronomy 34:9, it states that Joshua was full of the spirit of wisdom, because Moses had laid his hands upon him and that the children of Israel hearkened unto Joshua. It states that Joshua does what the Lord commands him, just as Moses did to the Lord.
In the book of Joshua 1:1, the Lord speaks directly unto Joshua, and it mentions that Joshua was Moses' minister
In Joshua 3:7, the Lord again speaks unto Joshua and tells Joshua that He{the Lord} is going to maginify Joshua in the sight of Israel so that the children of Israel will know that the Lord is with Joshua, just as the Lord was with Moses.
document.write(drawVerse(9,20652));
In Joshua 4:14, the promise the Lord has just made unto Joshua, to maginify him comes to pass. Again, there is another comparision to Moses.
The point of this post is really just to point out that Joshua could of been who Moses was talking about, and the only thing that he has going against him is a small passage of scripture which states:
Deut. 18:20 said:
Joshua did none of these things. Whenever Joshua is talking for the Lord it is expressly stated that the Lord commanded him to do such. There is not talk at all of Joshua speaking in the name of other gods. The last little bit, "....that prophet shall die..." Could mean pretty much anything, it doesn't specify whether it is a spiritual death or a physical death, so that verse cannot beheld against Joshua until, you, Comet, can prove whether it is a physical or spiritual death.
Bishka
Veteran Member
And Comet, the only time that Elijah(Elisha) is mentioned at all in context with Moses is on the mount of transfiguration. Once. That's it. Joshua is mentioned multiple times.
I'm not saying Elijah is or isn't, but it doesn't look like you have a very strong case for Elijah being the only one.
I'm not saying Elijah is or isn't, but it doesn't look like you have a very strong case for Elijah being the only one.
kai
ragamuffin
beckysoup61 said:
well i just thought it would have a greater significance to the people he is prophesying to if he meant someone in the near future rather than say 500 or 1000 years it had to have some relevance to the events that were unfolding at the time, (well thats my theory anyway)
I know Jesus makes a prophesy about a man who will come and will not speak of himself but will be told what to say, and shew unto you. It seems similar to the prophesy Moses made.
It makes mention to the fact that this prophet will be like Moses. Christians don't believe Jesus was a prophet, so that takes him out of the mix.
Moses made a nation of believers, and he was a military leader. He took people who were lost, and put them on a straight path, and he freed them from idoltry, he also lived amongst non-believers and lived as a non believer for a good portion of his life, until he became a prophet at the age of 40.
Mohammed made a nation of believers, he was a military leader. He took people who were lost and put them on a straight path, and he freed them from idoltry, he to lived amongst non-believers, and lived as a non-believer for a good portion of his life until he to became a prophet at the age of 40.
My vote is for Mohammed, but what did u expect from a muslim?
Peace guys.
Ezzedean
It makes mention to the fact that this prophet will be like Moses. Christians don't believe Jesus was a prophet, so that takes him out of the mix.
Moses made a nation of believers, and he was a military leader. He took people who were lost, and put them on a straight path, and he freed them from idoltry, he also lived amongst non-believers and lived as a non believer for a good portion of his life, until he became a prophet at the age of 40.
Mohammed made a nation of believers, he was a military leader. He took people who were lost and put them on a straight path, and he freed them from idoltry, he to lived amongst non-believers, and lived as a non-believer for a good portion of his life until he to became a prophet at the age of 40.
My vote is for Mohammed, but what did u expect from a muslim?
Peace guys.
Ezzedean
Bishka
Veteran Member
kai said:
No it doesn't say that, that prophecy is of the Messiah, but from what scriptures I have as a Latter-day Saint, it tells me, right in them that it is. It also makes reference to it in Acts 3:22-23 in the New Testament.
I believe the Messiah was a concept in the time of Moses, but I can't be quite sure..
18I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.
I'm sorry but the line which states "and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him." I immediately think of Mohammed when I read that. The story of Mohammed is based around the fact that he was illiterate and the reason he was able to speak the way he did was because God commanded him to do so.
I'm sorry but the line which states "and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him." I immediately think of Mohammed when I read that. The story of Mohammed is based around the fact that he was illiterate and the reason he was able to speak the way he did was because God commanded him to do so.
FerventGodSeeker
Believer
Due to the fact that I am a Christian who tries to look at the Bible as a whole, it seems clear to me that Jesus is the Prophet mentioned by Moses. Biblically this is seen from the New Testament:
"Philip found Nathanael and said to him, 'We have found Him of whom Moses in the law, and also the prophets, wrote--Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph.' " John 1:45
Peter also clearly viewed Jesus as this Prophet, and in fact quotes the very prophecy under discussion and uses it in reference to Jesus. (Acts 3:19-26)
FerventGodSeeker
"Philip found Nathanael and said to him, 'We have found Him of whom Moses in the law, and also the prophets, wrote--Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph.' " John 1:45
Peter also clearly viewed Jesus as this Prophet, and in fact quotes the very prophecy under discussion and uses it in reference to Jesus. (Acts 3:19-26)
FerventGodSeeker