TheGreaterGame said:
Jesus quotes the Bible He read (the torah) in Matthew 4:4, "Man does not live by bread alone, but by every word that comes from the mouth of God. Jesus was quoting Duet 8:3 . . . which means that Jesus trusted and belived in the accuracy (inerrancy if you will) of the bible.
Nonsense. Quoting one verse implies absolutely nothing about the remaining verses. More importantly, what you have is not evidence that
"Jesus trusted and belived in the accuracy" of that verse, but that the anonymous author of gMat, writing decades after the purported conversation, chose to reference Deuteronomy in his fictive dialogue.
Parenthetically, bible/org notes:
"The order of the second and third temptations differs in Lukes account (4:5-12) from the order given in Matthew." The New Testament is such a marvelously ... liquid text.
TheGreaterGame said:
<yawn> Oy vey. </yawn> The Pastorals have no claim to authenticity. In its introduction, the New American Bible acknowleges:
"Most scholars are convinced that Paul could not have been responsible for the vocabulary and style, the concept of church organization, or the theological expressions found in these letters." Kirby notes that they were not included in Marcion's canon and unreferenced before Irenaeus.
To argue that the Bible inerrant because it contains an anonymous letter that says that the Bible is inspired is a childishly circular argument worthy only of embarrassment.
TheGreaterGame said:
Just looking at these texts alone . . . and we could look at many more . . . we see ...
We see that your claim is based on absurd logic, fictive dialogue, and inauthentic text.
TheGreaterGame said:
Archealogy and the 6,000 manuscripts dating from 250 BC to AD 1000 . . . show that the Bible that we have today is almost exactly like the ones written over 2300 years ago.
They in fact show nothing of the sort. The coordinator of the DSS Project characterized the textual evidence as
pluriformity, while the so-called New Testament provides fertile ground for redaction criticsm. Furthermore, to the extent that textual consistency exists, it only seves as evidence for efficient harmonization and disciplined copying, and says absolutely nothing about the accuracy of the text - there is very little variation in the many extant copies of the Wizard of Oz.