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Let There Be Light and There Was Light

Ben Masada

Well-Known Member
Ok ben, let me quote the verse of psalm 119:105,



I am as a muslem consider the Torah as the words of God.

Qura'an Ch.5 verse 44
44. It was We who revealed
The Law (to Moses): therein
Was guidance and light.'
By its standard have been judged
The Jews, by the Prophets
Who bowed (as in Islam)
To God's Will, by the Rabbis
And the Doctors of Law:
For to them was entrusted
The protection of God's Book,
And they were witnesses thereto:
Therefore fear not men,
But fear Me, and sell not
My Signs for a miserable price.
If any do fail to judge
By (the light of) what God
Hath revealed, they are
(No better than) Unbelievers.

the debate is not whether the Torah is light or not, but rather what was meant by light in Genesis 1:3.

ok, you jews know beter than us so that I asked you.


You, as a Moslem consider the Torah as the Words of God and contradict yourself with Qur'an 5:44. What was meant by light in Genesis 1:3, I made it clear enough in the thread. If you didn't read it, you still can. If you read it and did not understand, you can re-read it. And yes, I agree with you that of our Scriptures, we do know better than you do. Thanks.
 

kylixguru

Well-Known Member
You also need to consider there are some additional factors Jesus was aware of that most people do not take into consideration. The people of the northern kingdom had long since been driven out of their land and scattered among all the nations of the Gentiles. See Ezekiel 4 for the basis of this. God considered the northern kingdom an adulterous wife and put her away. (See Ezekiel 23) The law prescribed that she be put to death and at the societal body level being driven out and scattered manifested it. Her body was decomposing in her scattered state awaiting her resurrection, which is to be gathered back in when Shiloh would come. If a woman is a put away bride and another husband receives her, she causes him to commit adultery because that woman is not actually freed from the law of her husband until he is dead. So, being that the northern kingdom had been as a wife to the Lord, she would not be eligible to be remarried to anyone until her Lord had died. Thus, Jesus understood if He did anything to posture towards the scattered people of the northern kingdom prior to the death of her Lord (which He Himself came to fulfill) that they could not be touched as that would make of Him an adulterer. So, after Jesus had been killed and had manifested the death of her Lord, she was freed from the law of her husband opening up the capability to begin ministering to what He called the "lost sheep of Israel" that He knew were scattered among the Gentiles. This is why Peter did not get that vision until after Jesus had died. There's quite a bit more to it than this, but hopefully you can see more of the underlying landscape of things now.
Ben Masada, I would appreciate it if you addressed this paragraph.

Have a nice day!
 

Ben Masada

Well-Known Member
Ben Masada, I would appreciate it if you addressed this paragraph.



Originally Posted by jbug
You also need to consider there are some additional factors Jesus was aware of that most people do not take into consideration. The people of the northern kingdom had long since been driven out of their land and scattered among all the nations of the Gentiles. See Ezekiel 4 for the basis of this. God considered the northern kingdom an adulterous wife and put her away. (See Ezekiel 23)

The law prescribed that she be put to death and at the societal body level being driven out and scattered manifested it.

And the law was satisfied when Israel was removed from existence as a People or nation or kingdom, and forcefully assimilated with the Gentiles by ceasing to be Israel, the firstborn of God. (Exo. 4:22) And the death of Israel is symbolized by God's rejection of her prophesied in Psalm 78:67.

Her body was decomposing in her scattered state awaiting her resurrection, which is to be gathered back in when Shiloh would come.

She will never be gathered back to the Tribal system as a separate kingdom of Ten Tribes. Tha's over. Those who claim to have belonged to one or other of those tribes can join Judah but individually through conversion to Judaism. And this of awaiting resurrection, forget it. Resurrection is not only against Nature, but also against the Scriptures. (Eccl. 9:5,6; 12:7)

If a woman is a put away bride and another husband receives her, she causes him to commit adultery because that woman is not actually freed from the law of her husband until he is dead. So, being that the northern kingdom had been as a wife to the Lord, she would not be eligible to be remarried to anyone until her Lord had died.

In that case she could never get free because the Lord is eternal. There is no such a thing as death of God. But, metaphorically, Israel was not a put-away bride but a dead one. And if you are referring to Jesus, you are contradicting his own words that "God is absolutely One and the Only Lord." So, every time a Christian refers to Jesus as Lord, he is only saying that Jesus didn't know what he was talking about.

Thus, Jesus understood if He did anything to posture towards the scattered people of the northern kingdom prior to the death of her Lord (which He Himself came to fulfill) that they could not be touched as that would make of Him an adulterer.

Jesus never tempted to reach for those lost tribes. He meant those in Israel who were so-to-speak, spiritually lost. He never gave any indication that he had come for those lost tribes then or later. He meant that he had come ONLY for the Jews, telling his disciples to go RATHER to the lost sheep of the House of Israel. (Mat. 10:6) Rather means "only to" and not first to.

So, after Jesus had been killed and had manifested the death of her Lord, she was freed from the law of her husband opening up the capability to begin ministering to what He called the "lost sheep of Israel" that He knew were scattered among the Gentiles.

You can never prove something like that, when he himself warned his disciples not to take the gospel to the Gentiles. When he said he had come rather to the lost sheep of Israel, why would he preach to the Jews only? That's evidence that he meant the spiritually dead Jews as lost sheep of Israel.(Mat. 10:6)

This is why Peter did not get that vision until after Jesus had died. There's quite a bit more to it than this, but hopefully you can see more of the underlying landscape of things now.

Peter had that vision because he had been assigned by the head of the Sect of the Nazarenes with the task to bring the gospel to the Gentiles till Paul appeared and robbed him of the title. (Acts 15:7)
 
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kylixguru

Well-Known Member
Originally Posted by jbug
You also need to consider there are some additional factors Jesus was aware of that most people do not take into consideration. The people of the northern kingdom had long since been driven out of their land and scattered among all the nations of the Gentiles. See Ezekiel 4 for the basis of this. God considered the northern kingdom an adulterous wife and put her away. (See Ezekiel 23)
And the law was satisfied when Israel was removed from existence as a People or nation or kingdom, and forcefully assimilated with the Gentiles by ceasing to be Israel, the firstborn of God. (Exo. 4:22) And the death of Israel is symbolized by God's rejection of her prophesied in Psalm 78:67.

She will never be gathered back to the Tribal system as a separate kingdom of Ten Tribes. Tha's over. Those who claim to have belonged to one or other of those tribes can join Judah but individually through conversion to Judaism.
Why do you say the lost tribes of Israel shall not be gathered back again? The same decree of judgment and scattering also occurred on the southern kingdom of Judah as well. The main difference being the difference in duration. Israel was 2,730 (390x7) years and Judah was 280 (40x7) years. Once your period had expired the Lord worked through Cyrus and Darius to have you gathered back as a people in your homeland from out of Babylon and the surrounding areas and gathered again as a people. Why won't this happen for the northern kingdom when their period of judgment expires? Which, by the way, was the year 2010.

And this of awaiting resurrection, forget it. Resurrection is not only against Nature, but also against the Scriptures. (Eccl. 9:5,6; 12:7)
Well, let me be the bearer of GOOD NEWS!!! You are mistaken!

In that case she could never get free because the Lord is eternal. There is no such a thing as death of God. But, metaphorically, Israel was not a put-away bride but a dead one. And if you are referring to Jesus, you are contradicting his own words that "God is absolutely One and the Only Lord." So, every time a Christian refers to Jesus as Lord, he is only saying that Jesus didn't know what he was talking about.
Lord is merely a title, not a singular personal identity. Abraham was Sarai's lord. I am my wife's lord. Jesus is my Lord. the Father is Jesus' Lord, and so on.

Also, what do you make of Isaiah 44:6 which says:
"Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God."

As I read this we have 3 distinct personages here.
1) LORD King of Israel
2) LORD of hosts who redeems the LORD King of Israel.
3) One God, the first and the last, the Almighty God.

The natural flow of the passage implies that we have a King of Israel (Not Judah) who is in need of being redeemend and the Lord of Hosts is who redeems Him. It is implied by the sentence structure that the means by which the King is redeemed by His Redeemer is the two souls combine into a single super-soul who then manifests as a single one and only Almighty God.

As I see it, this is the three personages of the Trinity/Godhead. You have Adam who was given dominion over all things. Thus, Adam was indeed a King. However, things didn't go well for Him and He transgressed and fell and needed to be redeemed. Thus, there was a Savior provided for Him. Then, these two in union together form the Almighty God. So, we have here the Holy Ghost (dead God in need of redemption), Son of God (who was Holy Ghost or Adam's Redeemer) and then the Father as the Almighty God comes onto the scene who manifests the return of both Adam and the Savior in a powerhouse tour de force to be the Messiah all of Israel and Judah are waiting for.

Jesus never tempted to reach for those lost tribes.
Right, they were still under the 2,730 year period of judgment.

He meant those in Israel who were so-to-speak, spiritually lost. He never gave any indication that he had come for those lost tribes then or later.
Wrong. It's clear what Jesus meant when he said the "lost sheep of Israel".

He meant that he had come ONLY for the Jews, telling his disciples to go RATHER to the lost sheep of the House of Israel. (Mat. 10:6) Rather means "only to" and not first to.
He only came to the Jews in his personal ministry, that is true.

You can never prove something like that, when he himself warned his disciples not to take the gospel to the Gentiles. When he said he had come rather to the lost sheep of Israel, why would he preach to the Jews only? That's evidence that he meant the spiritually dead Jews as lost sheep of Israel.(Mat. 10:6)
I explained why. You seem to have forgotten aspects of your law and you also deny that Jesus came to carry out the actions to free them from the law of their husband so that they could at least be preached to.


Peter had that vision because he had been assigned by the head of the Sect of the Nazarenes with the task to bring the gospel to the Gentiles till Paul appeared and robbed him of the title. (Acts 15:7)
Robbed him? Do you think Paul fabricated his vision of Jesus Christ?
 
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Ben Masada

Well-Known Member
Israel was 2,730 (390x7) years and Judah was 280 (40x7) years.

Jeremiah says that the 70 weeks of Daniel 9:24 were to be 70 years, and that's exactly what they were. (Jer. 25:11)

Well, let me be the bearer of GOOD NEWS!!! You are mistaken!

Prove it, but in the only Scriptures that Jesus considered the Word of God and not in the NT.

Lord is merely a title, not a singular personal identity. Abraham was Sarai's lord. I am my wife's lord. Jesus is my Lord. the Father is Jesus' Lord, and so on.

Being asked about the greatest of the commandments Jesus said that God is One and the only Lord. To me, it means that Jesus was neither Lord nor wanted to be addressed as such. (Mark 12:29) Otherwise, that's one of the contradictions of the NT.

Also, what do you make of Isaiah 44:6 which says: "Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God."

Exactly what the text says, that the Almighty is the only Lord and the Redeemer of Israel.(Isa. 44:24)

As I see it, this is the three personages of the Trinity/Godhead.

There is no such a thing as Trinity. God is absolutely One. (Isa. 46:5)

Right, they were still under the 2,730 year period of judgment.

No, those Tribes will never be back. Only some of them will join Judah but as one people or one nation: The Jewish People. (Ezek. 37:19-22)

I explained why. You seem to have forgotten aspects of your law and you also deny that Jesus came to carry out the actions to free them from the law of their husband so that they could at least be preached to.

Rather the opposite is true. Jesus did not come to free us from the Law. He came to confirm the Law down to the letter. (Mat. 5:18,19) And in the parable of the Richman and Lazarus he said that to avoid Hell one must listen to Moses. (Luke 16:28-31) It means to observe the Law. Paul was the one who came to abolish the Law with his policy of Replacement Theology. (Ephe. 2:15)


Robbed him? Do you think Paul fabricated his vision of Jesus Christ?

Yes, by way of Luke, who was one of his disciples.
 
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astarath

Well-Known Member
Holy long posts Batman. I have reconciled it to an understanding of by creating light and dark and calling it good, God defines good and evil. The sun being created on the next day is not the same type of light.
 

Ben Masada

Well-Known Member
Holy long posts Batman. I have reconciled it to an understanding of by creating light and dark and calling it good, God defines good and evil. The sun being created on the next day is not the same type of light.


I agree with you. That's why we must interpret the allegory of Creation in a metaphorical manner. That light created on the the first day was a prophecy for the rise of Israel. (Gen. 1:3)
 

astarath

Well-Known Member
Quite to the contrary. Literally God created it. Before He created it no one else could understand it except Him. It's literal creation was the beginning of Good and Evil.
 

Ben Masada

Well-Known Member
Quite to the contrary. Literally God created it. Before He created it no one else could understand it except Him. It's literal creation was the beginning of Good and Evil.


The knowledge of good and evil or the distinction thereof, came about when man ate from the tree of knowledge. Metaphorically, when man began acquiring knowledge in general.
 

astarath

Well-Known Member
Absolutely, that is when they experienced it for the first time and acquired the knowledge of it. But in order for them to come to know it, it needed to exist. It came into existence with the creation of light and dark
 

Ben Masada

Well-Known Member
Absolutely, that is when they experienced it for the first time and acquired the knowledge of it. But in order for them to come to know it, it needed to exist. It came into existence with the creation of light and dark


Darkness cannot be created. Darkness is only the absence of light. Metaphorically, when Israel was created, there were only Gentiles in the world. Then, Israel was created so that by means of her, God would reveal His glory in the sight of the nations. Read Ezekiel 20:41. The Psalmist saw the same when he compared the Word of God to ligh in the path of man. (Psalm 119:105) And then he said that the Word of God was given to Israel only and to no other people on earth. (Psalm 147:19,20) And also Jesus understood it to be so when he said to a crowd of Jews in his sermon of the mount: "You are the light of the world." (Mat. 5:14)
 

astarath

Well-Known Member
Absolutely it can be created. until there is light it did not exist. The creation of the light also created the dark.
 

kylixguru

Well-Known Member
...we must interpret the allegory of Creation in a metaphorical manner.
Yes, indeed.

That light created on the the first day was a prophecy for the rise of Israel. (Gen. 1:3)
But, wait, I said the same thing and you disagreed with me. I thought you said Israel (northern kingdom of 10 tribes) would not rise as a distinct people in their tribes again?

The only way they can stand up as a light to the world on Day 1 of a creation is to do so on Day 1 of the new Creation that is imminently pending. The reasoning here is that we are in the "latter days" of the current creation which means by implication we are on the cusp of a new beginning. Thus, the timing for Israel to rise is now.

Day 4 is when Israel initially was brought to be which is indeed when the "greater light to (who should in the future) rule the day" was created, but it wouldn't actually do its job until Day 1 of the new Creation to follow. Thus, by implication, the blueprint says a greater light to do something wouldn't do so until later. Thus, you are confronted with the challenge of explaining how this all links together and how it plays out.

It plays out on an individual level as a Messiah figure as well as the societal bodies they are the head of.

Thus, Messiah the individual has an initial advent as the Son of God on Day 4 and then Messiah the individual has a subsequent advent as the Father on Day 1 of the new Creation that follows to do what He was born to do, which is to rule.

Surely you will agree the source of that light on Day 1 comes from that which was created for that purpose on Day 4 of the previous creation. Yes? No? Why?
 

Ben Masada

Well-Known Member
Yes, indeed.

But, wait, I said the same thing and you disagreed with me. I thought you said Israel (northern kingdom of 10 tribes) would not rise as a distinct people in their tribes again?

No, I meant Israel when it rose from the stem of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Therefore, many years before the time when Jacob expressed his prophesy of Shiloh. That is, before the split of the Tribes.

The only way they can stand up as a light to the world on Day 1 of a creation is to do so on Day 1 of the new Creation that is imminently pending. The reasoning here is that we are in the "latter days" of the current creation which means by implication we are on the cusp of a new beginning. Thus, the timing for Israel to rise is now.

Wake up jbug, we have risen as a nation, one People since the return from exile in Babylon.

Day 4 is when Israel initially was brought to be which is indeed when the "greater light to (who should in the future) rule the day" was created, but it wouldn't actually do its job until Day 1 of the new Creation to follow. Thus, by implication, the blueprint says a greater light to do something wouldn't do so until later. Thus, you are confronted with the challenge of explaining how this all links together and how it plays out.

There is no play out. You are trying to be literal, while I am interpreting Creation in a metaphorical manner.

It plays out on an individual level as a Messiah figure as well as the societal bodies they are the head of.

There is no such a thing as an individual Messiah. The Messiah is collective in Israel, the Jewish People. According to the consensus that the Suffering Servant is the Messiah, Isaah identifies him with Israel by name. (Isa. 41:8,9; 44:1,2,21)

Thus, Messiah the individual has an initial advent as the Son of God on Day 4 and then Messiah the individual has a subsequent advent as the Father on Day 1 of the new Creation that follows to do what He was born to do, which is to rule.

If you are referring to Jesus, I have told you already that the dead do not return to life again. It is against the Scriptures. (Eccl. 9:5,6; 12:7)

Surely you will agree the source of that light on Day 1 comes from that which was created for that purpose on Day 4 of the previous creation. Yes? No? Why?

Definitely NOT! The light on the first day was only a prophesy for the rise of Israel. The light on day 4 was metaphorically the one from the sun on the sky. And all metaphorically, since the whole Genesis account of creation is an allegory.
 
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kylixguru

Well-Known Member
No, I meant Israel when it rose from the stem of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.
And you reconcile that as Day 1 of the Creation how?

Therefore, many years before the time when Jacob expressed his prophesy of Shiloh. That is, before the split of the Tribes.
As I understand it Day 1 of the Creation corresponds with the very beginning in Adam's time. Since when and how do you transport that to the time you claim?

Wake up jbug, we have risen as a nation, one People since the return from exile in Babylon.
Ah, so you got through your 280 years of exile and judgment and got to be gathered together as a people again but your brothers in the northern kingdom don't get the same opportunity even though their period of exile and judgment was set to 2,730 years? Doesn't that make you a hypocrite? After your exile and judgment was over and well within the timing of the Creation account blueprint for Day 4, a Messiah was born unto your people that could have brought a kingdom of everlasting peace. What happened? He was nailed to a cross. When shall He return? Look at the blueprint. It's plain and simple. Day 1 of the new Creation. To whom shall He come? To those people of the northern kingdom, including your birthright brother. And, what shall they do? Accept Him! Then, who are they going to rouse up from off their couch of slumber? Their brother Judah who needs to accept the scepter is now in the hands of Joseph's House. Afterall, the beginning is Aleph Bet, the ox's house, who is Joseph.

There is no play out. You are trying to be literal, while I am interpreting Creation in a metaphorical manner.
Of course I am taking the text literally. It provides it's own metaphoric assignments that I find very handy.

Who gave you the right to make up your own metaphors?

There is no such a thing as an individual Messiah. The Messiah is collective in Israel, the Jewish People. According to the consensus that the Suffering Servant is the Messiah, Isaah identifies him with Israel by name. (Isa. 41:8,9; 44:1,2,21)
In relation to the world, Israel as a people are their Messiah. In relation to Israel, Jesus Christ is THEIR Messiah and He shall return in a new advent as the Father from the House of Joseph.

If you are referring to Jesus, I have told you already that the dead do not return to life again. It is against the Scriptures. (Eccl. 9:5,6; 12:7)
I already showed you how that passage is to be understood. If you do not accept how an eternal spirit can have multiple advents in the flesh then you are entirely wasting your time in the entire field of religion.

Definitely NOT! The light on the first day was only a prophesy for the rise of Israel. The light on day 4 was metaphorically the one from the sun on the sky. And all metaphorically, since the whole Genesis account of creation is an allegory.
You are a totally confused mess. Rather than understand what the text explicitly says in a literal manner, using only metaphors it explicity provides for itself, you are inventing your own metaphors to make it say whatever you want it to say. Which, as best as I can tell, is going to leave you totally in the dark. Judah has nothing new collectively to offer the world until Shiloh comes to rouse them up and GATHER them into the Kingdom that shall otherwise pass them by.
 
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That light is talking about the earth's light. When you see a satillite image of the earth you see the light the earth gives off like a light bulb. That is not the sun's light reflecting of the earth. It's the light that God said was here before he created the sun & moon.

John 8:32
thecomforter.info
 

outhouse

Atheistically
That light is talking about the earth's light. When you see a satillite image of the earth you see the light the earth gives off like a light bulb. That is not the sun's light reflecting of the earth

you cant be serious????

BWAAA HHAA hahhhaaaaha

It's the light that God said was here before he created the sun & moon.

is that your own interpretation?
 

Ben Masada

Well-Known Member
And you reconcile that as Day 1 of the Creation how?

As I understand it Day 1 of the Creation corresponds with the very beginning in Adam's time. Since when and how do you transport that to the time you claim?

Ah, so you got through your 280 years of exile and judgment and got to be gathered together as a people again but your brothers in the northern kingdom don't get the same opportunity even though their period of exile and judgment was set to 2,730 years? Doesn't that make you a hypocrite? After your exile and judgment was over and well within the timing of the Creation account blueprint for Day 4, a Messiah was born unto your people that could have brought a kingdom of everlasting peace. What happened? He was nailed to a cross. When shall He return? Look at the blueprint. It's plain and simple. Day 1 of the new Creation. To whom shall He come? To those people of the northern kingdom, including your birthright brother. And, what shall they do? Accept Him! Then, who are they going to rouse up from off their couch of slumber? Their brother Judah who needs to accept the scepter is now in the hands of Joseph's House. Afterall, the beginning is Aleph Bet, the ox's house, who is Joseph.

Of course I am taking the text literally. It provides it's own metaphoric assignments that I find very handy.

Who gave you the right to make up your own metaphors?

In relation to the world, Israel as a people are their Messiah. In relation to Israel, Jesus Christ is THEIR Messiah and He shall return in a new advent as the Father from the House of Joseph.

I already showed you how that passage is to be understood. If you do not accept how an eternal spirit can have multiple advents in the flesh then you are entirely wasting your time in the entire field of religion.

You are a totally confused mess. Rather than understand what the text explicitly says in a literal manner, using only metaphors it explicity provides for itself, you are inventing your own metaphors to make it say whatever you want it to say. Which, as best as I can tell, is going to leave you totally in the dark. Judah has nothing new collectively to offer the world until Shiloh comes to rouse them up and GATHER them into the Kingdom that shall otherwise pass them by.


You know perfectly well that you cannot prove anything about Jesus in the Hebrew Scriptures. Now, on your question about my right to interpret the Scriptures, the answer is that I belong to the People who wrote those Scriptures, while you are only a reader trying to push your Mormon ideas in the hope that a Gentile can teach Judaism to a Jew. The opposite is true if you read Isaiah 2:2,3. When Gentiles are sincerely hungry for the Truth the address must be Zion, which is a synonym for the Jewish People. Then, you can read Zechariah 8:3 where it says that Gentiles from many nations will reach for the garments of the Jews and beg to join them for having finally recognized that God is with us. Why? Because they have acknowledged that His Word, God gave to Israel only and to no other people on earth. (Psalm 147:19,20)
 

Ben Masada

Well-Known Member
Absolutely it can be created. until there is light it did not exist. The creation of the light also created the dark.


Sorry astarath, but you are absolutely mistaken. Read Genesis 1:2. Darkness was there before the creation of that light in the first day. When light was created, darkness dissipated as proof that it was only the absence of light. But metaphorically, and according to Essene Theology, when the prophesy of the light on the first day of Creation was fulfilled with the rise of Israel, darkness, being the Gentiles, stayed to give rise to the spiritual war between the children of darkness and the children of light.
 

kylixguru

Well-Known Member
You know perfectly well that you cannot prove anything about Jesus in the Hebrew Scriptures. Now, on your question about my right to interpret the Scriptures, the answer is that I belong to the People who wrote those Scriptures, while you are only a reader trying to push your Mormon ideas in the hope that a Gentile can teach Judaism to a Jew.
So you expect me to believe those of the House of Joseph had nothing to do with Hebrew Scripture?
Or, you expect me to believe Joseph's descendents are all exterminated?
Seems to me if you took some time to objectively read the Hebrew Scriptures of MY fathers, you would understand neither of those cases are so.

Judah is exactly where Jacob said they would be in the last days. Asleep on the couch.

The opposite is true if you read Isaiah 2:2,3. When Gentiles are sincerely hungry for the Truth the address must be Zion, which is a synonym for the Jewish People.
No, Zion is not limited to Judah. Today's Zionists of the Jewish flavor are nothing more than an Edomite incursion seeking revenge. They are those who say they are Jews but who are not...

Then, you can read Zechariah 8:3 where it says that Gentiles from many nations will reach for the garments of the Jews and beg to join them for having finally recognized that God is with us. Why? Because they have acknowledged that His Word, God gave to Israel only and to no other people on earth. (Psalm 147:19,20)
You are dreaming here Ben! Get up off the couch and get acquainted with your birthright brother. They are alive and well.
 
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