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Featured John 1:1

Discussion in 'Scriptural Debates' started by J2hapydna, Nov 9, 2017.

  1. Windwalker

    Windwalker Veteran Member
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    Of course it means that. God is the Divine. Being Divine, means God. Divinity is God. God is Divinity. It's one and the same.
     
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  2. Hockeycowboy

    Hockeycowboy Well-Known Member
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    I'm sorry, but that's not correct:

    di·vine1
    /dəˈvīn/
    adjective
    1. of, from, or like God or a god.
      "heroes with divine powers"
      synonyms: godly, godlike, angelic, seraphic, saintly, beatific; More

    Angels are divine...anything created by God -- even Adam, before he sinned....the universe: it is all divine, because it's 'from God'. And Jesus is from God.
     
    #122 Hockeycowboy, Feb 7, 2019
    Last edited: Feb 7, 2019
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  3. cataway

    cataway Well-Known Member

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    or the trinity believers took it out to try to support the trinity
     
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  4. cataway

    cataway Well-Known Member

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  5. Hockeycowboy

    Hockeycowboy Well-Known Member
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    @Faithofchristian ,

    Which agrees with the context of John?

    John 1:18 says: “No one has ever seen God.” John 1:14 clearly says that “the Word became flesh and dwelt among us . . . we have beheld his glory.” Also, vss.1 &2 say that in the beginning he was “with God.” Can one be with someone and at the same time be that person? At John 17:3, Jesus addresses the Father as “the only true God”; so, Jesus as “a god” merely reflects his Father’s divine qualities.—Hebrews 1:3.

    Is the rendering “a god” consistent with the rules of Greek grammar? Some reference books argue strongly that the Greek text must be translated, “The Word was God.” But not all agree. In his article “Qualitative Anarthrous Predicate Nouns: Mark 15:39 and John 1:1,” Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in John 1:1, “with an anarthrous predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos.” He suggests: “Perhaps the clause could be translated, ‘the Word had the same nature as God.’” (Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87) Thus, in this text, the fact that the word the·osʹ in its second occurrence is without the definite article (ho) and is placed before the verb in the sentence in Greek is significant. Interestingly, translators that insist on rendering John 1:1, “The Word was God,” do not hesitate to use the indefinite article (a, an) in their rendering of other passages where a singular anarthrous predicate noun occurs before the verb. Thus at John 6:70, The Jerusalem Bible and King James both refer to Judas Iscariot as “a devil,” and at John 9:17 they describe Jesus as “a prophet.”

    Highly acclaimed scholar and Catholic priest (aTrinitarian) John L. McKenzie, S.J., in his Dictionary of the Bible, says: “Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated ‘the word was with the God [= the Father], and the word was a divine being.’”—(Brackets are his. Bold type mine. Published with nihil obstat and imprimatur.) (New York, 1965), p. 317.

    In harmony with the above, The Bible—An American Translation (1935), reads: “the Word was divine”; Moffat, “the Logos was divine”; The New Testament in an Improved Version (1808), published in London, “the word was a god.” In his German translation Ludwig Thimme expresses it in this way: “God of a sort the Word was.” Referring to the Word (who became Jesus Christ) as “a god” is consistent with the use of that term in the rest of the Scriptures. For example, at Psalms 82:1-6 human judges in Israel were referred to as “gods” (Hebrew, ’elo·himʹ; Greek, the·oiʹ, at John 10:34) because they were representatives of Jehovah and were to speak his law.”

    — “Reasoning from the Scriptures” published by Jehovah’s Witnesses.
     
  6. Faithofchristian

    Faithofchristian Well-Known Member

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    What Trinity believers, are you sure about that
     
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