If things were better then duh!
So you don't understand the difference between the statement "things were statistically better for black people before the 60s than now" and "riots in the 60s lead to a temporary decrease in the economic security of black communities between the 60s and 80s"?
General decline in societal structure. Its effecting the black sub-culture more.
What decline? How is it effecting it? Why is it effecting "black sub-culture" more?
One can only speculate as to why the black subculture is so violent.
Care you offer some speculation, then?
Again, one could only speculate, but I suspect that you think it's someone else's fault? Young black men haven't had to accept responsibility for their behavior when there is a constant drumming from leftist black activist that EVERYTHING is somehow somebody else's fault!
Not said anything even remotely like that. Stop making up nonsense. Answer my questions or make an argument for your positions - don't make up positions and then ascribe them to me. That's not how debate works.
Good! So, you and I agree that the significant discrepancy in black and white violent crime rates has nothing to do - inherently - with "being black". So, the only other explanation for the discrepancy is a societal one - that there are conditions in society that LEAD TO those outcomes.
Would you care to offer some speculation as to what those causes are? And no, I am not leading you to the conclusion "because white people bad". That's not the answer I'm looking for.
The video, that you think is totally unrelated discuses that. After WW2 black American solders that stayed behind in Germany showed that their kids scored just as well as their white counterparts in IQ testing. Soldiers that returned to the influence of black subculture (that was learned/adopted from white immigrants in the South) scored worse. Black kids in the North (where subculture had not yet spoiled things) scored BETTER than white kids in the south. Now the violent white/black subculture is affecting all kids everywhere!
Sounds like a lot of speculation with very little historical veracity. And it still doesn't answer the question of WHY this occurs. You can say "this subculture causes bad behaviour", but that doesn't explain why said subculture developed specifically around black people in the first place. Since you seem to imply you accept the premise that there is no inherent, genetic difference between black and white people in terms of intelligence or achievement, even if we therefore attribute the difference to "black culture", you still then have to answer the question as to why this culture arose in this particular group.
Also, I think it's bizarre to attribute these things to "experiencing black subculture" when it can very obviously be attributed to other, far more obvious things. Such as lack of access to financial support, lack of social outreach and poorer education - all of which are more of an issue in the American south than the American north. I mean, think about that logic for a moment. "Black people abroad do better than black people here, and black people in wealthier areas do better than black people in poorer areas... The cause must be black subculture!"
Maybe the cause is... America is systemically racist?