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Isaiah 7:14

Jayhawker Soule

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Premium Member
Binyamin said:
Why do you argue then the meaning of Almah?
What an interesting question. It say a good deal about the integrity with which you approach an issue.

To the best of my ability, I argue the evidence.
 

Deut 13:1

Well-Known Member
Jayhawker Soule said:
What an interesting question. It say a good deal about the integrity with which you approach an issue.

To the best of my ability, I argue the evidence.
Is it safe to assume you believe Isaiah 7:14 to be talking about the child born in Isaiah 8?
 

napen

Member
Binyamin said:
Let's look at what the Hebrew has to say...

Isaiah 7:14 לָכֵן יִתֵּן אֲדֹנָי הוּא, לָכֶם--אוֹת: הִנֵּה הָעַלְמָה, הָרָה וְיֹלֶדֶת בֵּן, וְקָרָאת שְׁמוֹ, עִמָּנוּ אֵל

Almah doesn't mean virgin, it means young woman. So let's read a better translation...

Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign: behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

If they wanted to say virgin, they would have used the Hebrew word Betulah.

"Almah" appears 9 other times in the Hebrew Scriptures; in each case it means "the young woman". When the Hebrew scriptures referred to a virgin (and they do alot) they always used the Hebrew word "betulah".

The translation in the Septuagint of the Hebrew word almah as parthenos cannot be used to show a Jewish doctrine of the virgin birth, for one also finds the word parthenos used in the Septuagint to translate the word na'arah, which merely means "young girl".
I agree with you, but first we have to know the reason for the sign in Isaiah, read this it connects to Isa 7:13-15...

13 Yet I will not tear the whole kingdom from him, but will give him one tribe for the sake of David my servant and for the sake of Jerusalem, which I have chosen."

1 Kings 11:13 (New International Version)



Let us read about regarding the promised one, who will come from the House of David


Now, concerning the man who will come from the house of David, what was the sign given for his people to identify him?

13 Then Isaiah said, "Hear now, you house of David! Is it not enough to try the patience of men? Will you try the patience of my God also?
Isaiah 7:13 (New International Version)


And finally God gave them a sign, it was the prophecy given to the House of David...

14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel. 15 He will eat curds and honey when he knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right.
Isaiah 7:14-15 (New International Version)



Since then, the people have been expecting the coming of the man who will continue the unfulfilled work of Solomon. The sign that was given was specific; to identify the man who will come from the house of David, the descendant should be born of a virgin. Why? The sign given by God was specific, since anybody can pretend to be a son of David, hence the sign. The sign was for a "virgin," meaning, a young and unmarried woman, to conceive and give birth to a son... and why he will be called "Immanuel"? Maestro Evangelista says, if the man prophesied, who would come from the house of David, is successful in leading his people know the name of God and when they call on God, that is the time God will answer them, therefore the name “Immanuel” would have been fulfilled.



And also a condition was given, the same with Solomon before, the reason for this is that although they (God's Anointed - the Messiah) were prophesied and sent by God it doesn't necessarily mean they cannot commit a mistake or fail in their mission, also as it was in the case of Solomon. "He will eat curds and honey " meaning he will also be instructed and reminded to follow the teaching of God, and to choose "the right" and reject "the wrong", meaning Satan. And if he fails, the punishment mentioned in II Samuel 7:14, "When he does wrong, I will punish him with the rod of men, with floggings inflicted by men" will apply.

But what is the significance of the sign? It had been misunderstood by the churches, and became one of their fundamental teaching, the doctrine of the "virgin birth." To get rid of any misconception regarding the sign, let us inquire if it was easy for a woman to conceive and bear a child during Old Testament times? What was the law regarding the matter?

20 If, however, the charge is true and no proof of the girl's virginity can be found, 21 she shall be brought to the door of her father's house and there the men of her town shall stone her to death. She has done a disgraceful thing in Israel by being promiscuous while still in her father's house. You must purge the evil from among you.
Deuteronomy 22:20-21 (New International Version)


And what will happen to man who defiles a virgin?

24 you shall take both of them to the gate of that town and stone them to death—the girl because she was in a town and did not scream for help, and the man because he violated another man's wife. You must purge the evil from among you.
Deuteronomy 22:24 (New International Version)

Very clear, the sign of the prophecy was for a woman to conceive and give birth to a son out of marriage; and she will not be found out and not be charged before the law, meaning she will escape punishment. And considering the strict observance of the law during their time, this was the sign the son of the woman will bear, to be born out of wedlock is a feat in their time.

Who was the young woman mentioned in the prophecy of Isaiah?

18This is how the birth of Jesus Christ came about: His mother Mary was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be with child through the Holy Spirit.
Matthew 1:18 (New International Version)

The young woman was Mary, and was to be married to Joseph, and before they got married she became pregnant, meaning Joseph made love to her even before they were married; now the religions preach that she was impregnated by the Holy Spirit.

So thereason why his people did not accept Jesus os simply because he never showed his sign: that she was born by a young unmarried woman... instead he gave the sign that he was the "son of God." He was killed...
 

Bennettresearch

Politically Incorrect
Am I correct in concluding here that it is more likely that Isaiah was only putting in the prerequesite that Immanuel be born of a pure woman, a virgin, and not the parthenogenesis that has been assumed? Did the writers of the NT Gospels overreach to cover up the fact the Jesus was thought to be illegitimate otherwise?
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
Bennettresearch said:
Am I correct in concluding here that it is more likely that Isaiah was only putting in the prerequesite that Immanuel be born of a pure woman, ...
Isaiah 7:14 offers a firstborn son as a sign to Ahaz. The "purity" of the mother is more presumption than prerequisite. To suggest that this verse refers to Jesus is so preposterous that the advocates of this nonsense have been forced to fabricate the concept of "duel prophecy".
 
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