On matters of ancient Hebrew I'm in the hands of others. A quick look at the net yields me this, from Jeff A. Benner, "author, teacher and administrator", contextually speaking of biblical Hebrew with examples including Genesis:Yeah, I'm with you on that. Just wondered about the 'no tenses in ancient Hebrew'. Is it true or just another lame apologetic?
"Ancient Hebrew language does not use past, present and future tenses for verbs. Instead they use two tenses, one for a complete action (manifested) and one for an incomplete action (unmanifested)."So with biblical Hebrew, I leave it to those expert in biblical Hebrew. When they render the sense by use of English tenses, I begin by trusting them.