tumbleweed41
Resident Liberal Hippie
In the beginning was the Logos, and the Logos was with God, and the Logos was God (or A God, or Divine). He was in the beginning with God; all things were made through Him, and without Him was not anything made that was made.
John 1:1-3
With the understanding that the above verses are taken from the reveled revelations on the Christian Bible, it is interesting to note the Greek Stoic influences of what John(?) said here.
To the Stoics, early Deistic type philosophers, the Logos was the active reason permeating and animating the universe. The Logos was Divine and Natural Law, without which, nothing would exist as it does.
Was John(?) influenced by these beliefs?
Did John(?) believe that, at the beginning of time, Natural Law came into existence? That this Natural Law was not only used by God, but also an aspect of God?
It does make sense that without the Logos, or Natural Law, nothing could be made, or even exist as it does.
Although it is obvious that John(?) believed Jesus to be the "Lamb of God", could it be that his Hellenistic background came through in the opening verses of the Gospel?
EDIT: Although I posted this in the Deism section, I welcome all reasonable discussion from anyone.
John 1:1-3
With the understanding that the above verses are taken from the reveled revelations on the Christian Bible, it is interesting to note the Greek Stoic influences of what John(?) said here.
To the Stoics, early Deistic type philosophers, the Logos was the active reason permeating and animating the universe. The Logos was Divine and Natural Law, without which, nothing would exist as it does.
Was John(?) influenced by these beliefs?
Did John(?) believe that, at the beginning of time, Natural Law came into existence? That this Natural Law was not only used by God, but also an aspect of God?
It does make sense that without the Logos, or Natural Law, nothing could be made, or even exist as it does.
Although it is obvious that John(?) believed Jesus to be the "Lamb of God", could it be that his Hellenistic background came through in the opening verses of the Gospel?
EDIT: Although I posted this in the Deism section, I welcome all reasonable discussion from anyone.
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