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In Ezekiel 18:4 does it say the soul dies?I am confused:(

Frank Goad

Well-Known Member
Because in ezekiel 18:4 in the kjv it looks like it does.
frown.png
If you look toward the ending it looks this:

Ezekiel 18:4 King James Version (KJV)
4 Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.

If you look toward the end it says the soul that sins will die.And makes a comma.Why?
frown.png
 

Etritonakin

Well-Known Member
Because in ezekiel 18:4 in the kjv it looks like it does.
frown.png
If you look toward the ending it looks this:

Ezekiel 18:4 King James Version (KJV)
4 Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.

If you look toward the end it says the soul that sins will die.And makes a comma.Why?
frown.png
The word for "soul" actually refers to the body -and is used for animals, also.
It does not mean the spirit.
However, Christ said that both body and spirit CAN be destroyed in the lake of fire (not necessarily that they WILL be)
Those whose works were not good will also be saved "yet so as by fire"
 

Axe Elf

Prophet
Yes, souls that are not saved are destroyed in the lake of fire. This is called the "second death" (the first death being the death of the body).

"I [also] saw the dead, great and small; they stood before the throne, and books were opened. Then another book was opened, which is [the Book] of Life. And the dead were judged (sentenced) by what they had done [their whole way of feeling and acting, their aims and endeavors] in accordance with what was recorded in the books. And the sea delivered up the dead who were in it, death and Hades (the state of death or disembodied existence) surrendered the dead in them, and all were tried and their cases determined by what they had done [according to their motives, aims, and works]. Then death and Hades (the state of death or disembodied existence) were thrown into the lake of fire. This is the second death, the lake of fire. And if anyone’s [name] was not found recorded in the Book of Life, he was hurled into the lake of fire." --Revelation 20:12-15 (Amplified Bible)

"But as for the cowards and the ignoble and the contemptible and the cravenly lacking in courage and the cowardly submissive, and as for the unbelieving and faithless, and as for the depraved and defiled with abominations, and as for murderers and the lewd and adulterous and the practicers of magic arts and the idolaters (those who give supreme devotion to anyone or anything other than God) and all liars (those who knowingly convey untruth by word or deed)—[all of these shall have] their part in the lake that blazes with fire and brimstone. This is the second death." --Revelation 21:8 (Amplified Bible)

Spirit is immortal; it cannot die. It returns to its source upon physical death--but it is also impersonal. There is no part of "you" that makes you "you" that survives as spirit. Spirit is merely the life force that makes the inanimate matter that composes our bodies alive.

"Then shall the dust [out of which God made man’s body] return to the earth as it was, and the spirit shall return to God Who gave it." --Ecclesiastes 12:7 (Amplified Bible)
 

danieldemol

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Because in ezekiel 18:4 in the kjv it looks like it does.
frown.png
If you look toward the ending it looks this:

Ezekiel 18:4 King James Version (KJV)
4 Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.

If you look toward the end it says the soul that sins will die.And makes a comma.Why?
frown.png
I think death is a relative state for the soul, not an absolute state.
 

TransmutingSoul

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Because in ezekiel 18:4 in the kjv it looks like it does.
frown.png
If you look toward the ending it looks this:

Ezekiel 18:4 King James Version (KJV)
4 Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.

If you look toward the end it says the soul that sins will die.And makes a comma.Why?
frown.png

I would agree that death is a state of being in regards to the soul. You will note that Christ also said let the dead bury the dead. Thus for a soul, death is remoteness from God.

Regards Tony
 
Before being able to understand what is written in the 18th chapter of Y’ḥez’qél/Ezekiel, one must first understand the meaning of the word nefesh.

The Hebrew Feminine Noun – נֶפֶשׁ – nefesh is defined: 1) resting place, esp. a structure next to or over a tomb 2) soul, life; person; will, desire, disposition.

Y’ḥez’qél 18:4:

הֵן כָּל־הַנְּפָשׁוֹת לִי הֵנָּה כְּנֶפֶשׁ הָאָב וּכְּנֶפֶשׁ הַבֵּן לִי־הֵנָּה הַנֶּפֶשׁ הַחֹטֵאת הִיא תָמוּת׃
Hén kal-han’fashot liy hénnah k’nefesh haʾav uk’nefesh habén liy-hénnah hanefesh haḥotéʾt hiyʾ tamut:

“Behold, all lives belong to Me. Like the life of the father, and likewise the life of the son, these belong to Me. The person who is the sinner, he will die.”

The passage goes on to explain about a person who lives his life righteously, obeying God’s Commands, and not disobeying any of them; he will surely live.

If this righteous man has a son who chooses to do exactly the opposite of his father, disobeying God’s Commands, he will surely die.

However, if this wicked man has a son who is completely repulsed by the actions of his father, and chooses to obey God’s Commands, he will surely live.

Verses 20-22 states:

“The person that is the sinner, he will die. A son will not carry the crimes of the father, and a father will not carry the crimes of the son. The righteousness of the righteous shall be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself.

And if the wicked man repents of all of the sins he has committed and keeps all of My laws and executes justice and righteousness, he shall surely live, he shall not die.

All his transgressions that he has committed shall not be remembered regarding him: through his righteousness, that he has done, he shall live.”

Specifically what this passage is telling us is that each and every individual human being is solely and exclusively responsible for his own misdeeds and wrongdoings. There is no one else that can make restitution for anyone’s sins other than the person committing the sin himself.

During the early formative stages of chr-stianity, this passage threw a very large monkey wrench into the workings of the chr-stian story. When confronted with this, the early innovators of chr-stianity were like: “Hey, wait a second… Our entire story revolves around our hero dying to save people from their sins. If no one can save anyone else from their sins, then what did he die to save people from?”

So, because of this conundrum, the early innovators of chr-stiantiy invented the bizarre concept of “original sin.”

How is a person saved from sin? Stop doing whatever you’re doing that is wrong, fix whatever your wrongdoing has caused, start doing what is right and continue doing what is right. There is absolutely no need for any dying/undying demigods.

In summary, this is about: You do the crime; You do the time; No one else is doing it for you.

 

Frank Goad

Well-Known Member
Nobody answered my question in my first post.
In Ezekiel 18:4 does it say the soul dies?I am confused:(

Because in ezekiel 18:4 in the kjv it looks like it does.
frown.png
If you look toward the ending it looks this:

Ezekiel 18:4 King James Version (KJV)
4 Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.

If you look toward the end it says the soul that sins will die.And makes a comma.Why?
frown.png


Why the comma?
 
I am not entirely certain what you are asking about. Are you asking why the translators of the King James Perversion translated this passage the way they did? Or are you asking why there is a comma after the word sinneth before the phrase it shall die?

I did not live in post-Elizabethan England, nor did I know any of the translators. My guess would be that a combination of Late Middle English and Early Modern English would have been the best choice for the people of that place, at that time. If it is a question about why they so terribly mistranslated so many things; that’s easy – to promote their theology.

If you are asking about why the comma is in the sentence – the soul that sinneth, it shall die. – It is because it is proper grammar to put a comma in that position.

In Hebrew this says – הַנֶּפֶשׁ hanefeshthe life/the person/the soulהַחֹטֵאת haḥotéʾtthe sinner/the criminalהִיא hiyʾ - she/itתָמוּת tamutshe will die/it will die – “The person that is doing the crime – that specific person, he/she/it will die” – “The person that is the sinner, itself, it will die.”


If this doesn’t answer your question, you will have to be a lot more specific. Because the only commas in this verse are after Behold; after father; and after sinneth; and as far as I can see they all belong there.

 

Thief

Rogue Theologian
Because in ezekiel 18:4 in the kjv it looks like it does.
frown.png
If you look toward the ending it looks this:

Ezekiel 18:4 King James Version (KJV)
4 Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.

If you look toward the end it says the soul that sins will die.And makes a comma.Why?
frown.png
I noticed a long time ago.....I am an assembly
and I am not my own handiwork

over the years my thought and feeling has developed
and now to some degree.....I have things to answer for

if the question (and there will be questions).....
is beyond a proper response over my lip....
I might be in DEEEEEEEeeeeeep trouble

as an assembly.....i see the potential to be
torn apart
 
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