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Does the name at exodus 3:14 imply omnipresence? or oneness with God?
I do not know anything about you personally but let's just say for a minute that you are a married man. Do you think it would be correct to say that you and your wife are one family? Mr. Jones and Mrs Jones. Two completely separate people but one family. Jesus and the Father are two separate beings but one family. When you say father and son don't you immediately see the idea of a family?
what about the apostles, were they to be one?I would call the Father and Son distinct instead of separate but yes the idea of a family can be a picture that would come to mind.
Talk me through the process by which someone or something becomes self-existent. I've never heard a clear view of the concept.I have heard people say it implies the self existent one who has always existed.
No. I am that I am is a deliberate evasion of the question, meaning only the same thing as I am me. It tells you nothing. The idea that knowing someone's name can give you power over them is widespread and ancient, and may be an element here. The idea is the engine of stories like Rumpelstiltskin.Does the name at exodus 3:14 imply omnipresence? or oneness with God?
Does the name at exodus 3:14 imply omnipresence? or oneness with God?
what about the apostles, were they to be one?
No. I am that I am is a deliberate evasion of the question, meaning only the same thing as I am me. It tells you nothing. The idea that knowing someone's name can give you power over them is widespread and ancient, and may be an element here. The idea is the engine of stories like Rumpelstiltskin.
It seems to be universally translated as "I am that I am" which I take to mean "I am that which I am" ─ a total evasion of the question. If you have a more precise translation that actually addresses the question (what is God's name?) I'd be pleased to hear it. What did [his] ma and pa call [him]?its not exactly a name, its a verb, an action, being intrinsic to the nature of all things as one thing
the word is a verb, simply I AM, or being that being, or to be, become.It seems to be universally translated as "I am that I am" which I take to mean "I am that which I am" ─ a total evasion of the question. If you have a more precise translation that actually addresses the question (what is God's name?) I'd be pleased to hear it. What did [his] ma and pa call [him]?
There's an old Scottish expression, I hear ye, which fits well here.the word is a verb, simply I AM, or being that being, or to be, become.
so then the things that become, or will be, arose from it's beingness
we first get a glimpse of it's being in genesis 1 as the light on the first day.
subsequently everything created arose from this light and this is why it is said you are the light of the world, a city set on a hill cannot be hid.
God's statement in Exodus 3:14 implies more than what many think. Took the time to answer the question here in a video reply. Have only done 2 of them. And haven't done one in a long time. Thought I would do another one.
Talk me through the process by which someone or something becomes self-existent. I've never heard a clear view of the concept.
It seems to be universally translated as "I am that I am" which I take to mean "I am that which I am" ─ a total evasion of the question. If you have a more precise translation that actually addresses the question (what is God's name?) I'd be pleased to hear it. What did [his] ma and pa call [him]?
It is interesting that the New World Translation has changed the translation of Ex 3:14 since my edition where it says "I shall prove to be what I shall prove to be". This seems a better translation than the newer edition which is "I will become what I choose to become" since God does not choose to become anything, God is what God is and God does not change. Nevertheless I can see the reasoning behind the newer translation that God was not speaking about what He is with His name but about what He would do, as in "I will do what I choose to do".
"I shall be what I shall be" (even if we put in the "prove to" which I don't think is in the text) does mean "I am what I am", which seems to be how 99% of translators translate the verse.
It is possible that the New World Translation translates Ex 3:14 to hide the use of "I am" at John 8:58 when the Jews wanted to stone Him no doubt for blasphemy of God's name. Interestingly the NWT translates John 8:58 as "I have been" instead of "I am" and so the Jews had no legal basis for wanting to stone Jesus, they would not have wanted to stone Him just for saying that He existed before Abraham lived. (again the JW translation of John 8:58 is in the 1% who translate it that way)
Maybe most translators have been wrong over the centuries or have been trying to hide the truth of what the Bible actually says, and the JWs could have it right but the NWT translation committee seems to have consisted of people who did not know Greek or Hebrew.
The idea that God does not "chose to become" is silly. Think about it. Jehovah lived eternally in the past without having created. Then he decided to become a Creator and created things. God always has been. Then one day he decided to become a Creator. That obviously encompassed billions of years since the physical universe came into existence, but the idea that he cannot chose to become what he wants to become limits God, as if he was forced to create us? He didn't chose to create? He had no choice in the matter? Where is the logic in your statement?