gnostic
The Lost One
The verses J2hapydna supplied were self-explanatory, omega2xx. Which mean that I don't have to prove anything.It is not about reinterpreting, it is about using other Scripture to interpret it.
You would have to be dumbest guy in literature subject, if you cannot see there were no mention of Amalekites in those verses.
You said it yourself, "Amalekites" were never mentioned any of these passages, regarding child sacrifices. In your post, you replied this:
There is no direct rference to tghe Amalekite. The references are to Molech(Lev 128:21, 20:2-5, 2 Ki 23:10 & Jer 32:35) who was a Canananite God.
Since you have crashed into the debate between me and J2hapydna, this paragraph that I quote from you, is the only smart thing you wrote in this thread, but then you spoil it by reverting to baseless conjectures in the next lines, and the next 3 replies.
You wrote "No direct reference to the Amalekites" that connect the Amalekites to Molech, so there are also no direct link to connect the Amalekites with human sacrifices to Molech.
Without the references, why should I need to prove anything. Those 4 verses that you cited no references.
And if the Amalekites were indeed to slaughtered 1 Samuel 15, then the Amalekites had nothing to do with with 2 Kings 23:10 and Jeremiah 32:35.
2 Kings 23:10 said:He desecrated Topheth, which was in the Valley of Ben Hinnom, so no one could use it to sacrifice their son or daughter in the fire to Molek.
The "He" being King Josiah of Judah.
In 2 Kings 23, Josiah tore down shrines and altars of various Canaanite gods, not just those that belonging to Molech. At know point does ever mention "Amalekites".
As I stated in one of my earlier reply, Jeremiah was a contemporary to Josiah and to the final kings, including the last when Jerusalem fell to the Neo-Babylonian forces in 587.
The verse in Jeremiah 32:35 are actually related to the event of 2 Kings 23.
The verses in those chapters (in 2 Kings 23 and Jeremiah 32) actually prove my points.
J2hapydna, on the other hand, is making assumption that Jeremiah 32:35, even when there is no direct mention of Amalekites being involved in.
There were also no direct mention of Exodus and 1 Samuel 15 to connect the Amalekites with "Molech" or with "human sacrices".
J2hapydna think it is implied, but that's just baseless assumptions.
If it is implied, then the person needing to prove it, is J2hapydna, and apparently you, since you keep arguing over this with me.
Last edited: