Ehav4Ever
Well-Known Member
You are using a strawman argument here. I did not say the Jews cannot read their
own Torah in Hebrew. I just asked what it said.
Your question was not clear. Maybe it was in how you wrote it. i.e. the way you wrote your comment it appeared that you were saying that no one could read the Torah scroll and the Humash.
Essentially, one is a Torah scroll and one is a Humash. They contain all of the mitzvoth that Hashem gave to Jews, even on this topic. In short, from section to section and page describes what is the basis for Jewish understanding. That basis is different than Christians have as a basis from the NT.
I person can call that a strawman arguement if they want, but the burdon of proof is not on Torah based in this matter. The OP asked a question and Torah based Jews have answered from one side to the other. It may be that some people just don't like the answer, which is fine.
Besides, I am not making arguements since I am not trying to prove anything. If Christians want to prove something to Jews you are going to pull out a Hebrew text, w/o translation, and prove it solely on the Hebrew alone.