Desperado_3d
New Member
Hi
I have question to Greek people who can read the original manuscripts of the bible :
In (1 Timothy 3:16)
I didn't study Greek language at all, but I have learned a grammatical rule regarding this matter, so I want to know if it is correct or not.
In English :
Beyond all question, the mystery of godliness is great: GOD appeared in a body, was vindicated by the Spirit, was seen by angels, was preached among the nations, was believed on in the world, was taken up in glory.
In other translations :
Beyond all question, the mystery of godliness is great: He \ Who appeared in a body, was vindicated by the Spirit, was seen by angels, was preached among the nations, was believed on in the world, was taken up in glory.
In Greek :
καὶ ὁμολογουμένως μέγα ἐστὶν τὸ τῆς εὐσεβείας μυστήριον Θεὸς ἐφανερώθη ἐν σαρκί ἐδικαιώθη ἐν πνεύματι ὤφθη ἀγγέλοις ἐκηρύχθη ἐν ἔθνεσιν ἐπιστεύθη ἐν κόσμῳ ἀνελήφθη ἐν δόξῃ
Θεὸς = GOD
The other manuscripts has :
καὶ ὁμολογουμένως μέγα ἐστὶν τὸ τῆς εὐσεβείας μυστήριον oV ἐφανερώθη ἐν σαρκί ἐδικαιώθη ἐν πνεύματι ὤφθη ἀγγέλοις ἐκηρύχθη ἐν ἔθνεσιν ἐπιστεύθη ἐν κόσμῳ ἀνελήφθη ἐν δόξῃ
oV = Who
In other words, some people, says that in the old manuscripts, the word (GOD) does not exist, but the words (who) exists.
As I understand, in the old times, the sacred names of the bible (Nomina Sacra), they used to be written in abbreviation, I mean, they just write the first and the last letters of the word.
QEOS = GOD, they write it :
QS (with a horizontal line above the two letters to indicate the abbreviation ) which means GOD.
In the mean time
OS (without a horizontal line above the two letters ), means (Who)
As you can see, if the horizontal line is not drawn, then it is completely a different word, and here is the problem, since the horizontal line in the original manuscript is vanishing, some people says it is (Who) not (GOD).
From here, I want a Greek person who can read the manuscript to tell me one grammatical explanation about the usage of (Who) in the manuscripts, is it correct grammatically ??
There is a researcher called Scott Jones said the following
Some of what he said) Please read it carefully
Furthermore, the scant few manuscripts missing the horizontal lines creates a SEVERE grammatical problem, for the Greek word OS (without the horizontal lines, which means "who") is a masculine relative pronoun that ends up modifying a NEUTER mystery." Significantly, this is not only HORRIBLE GREEK GRAMMAR, but the resulting clause ends up containing A PREDICATE WITHOUT A SUBJECT noun - in this case the noun " -- I say, the RESULTING CLAUSE ENDS UP CONTAINING A PREDICATE WITHOUT A SUBJECT -- which is of course ABSURD. Naturally, the only people who don't understand how ABSURD this grammatical error is are Anglo-bible scholars and modern version translators who can't speak Greek, whereas native Greeks who are fluent in English and who can actually speak their own mother tongue of Greek, unlike Anglo-bible scholars and modern version translators who pawn themselves off as experts in a language they can't even speak, testify just how utterly ABSURD this grammatical solecism is, a solecism that is so severe that not even a fledgling Greek schoolboy would commit it.
My question is :
Is it really a grammatical mistake to use (Who) instead of (GOD) ??
I really wish any native Greek speaker to answer me regarding this matter.
I am really interested in this matter, even though if Who is used, the meaning is the same.
Thank you for your time.
I have question to Greek people who can read the original manuscripts of the bible :
In (1 Timothy 3:16)
I didn't study Greek language at all, but I have learned a grammatical rule regarding this matter, so I want to know if it is correct or not.
In English :
Beyond all question, the mystery of godliness is great: GOD appeared in a body, was vindicated by the Spirit, was seen by angels, was preached among the nations, was believed on in the world, was taken up in glory.
In other translations :
Beyond all question, the mystery of godliness is great: He \ Who appeared in a body, was vindicated by the Spirit, was seen by angels, was preached among the nations, was believed on in the world, was taken up in glory.
In Greek :
καὶ ὁμολογουμένως μέγα ἐστὶν τὸ τῆς εὐσεβείας μυστήριον Θεὸς ἐφανερώθη ἐν σαρκί ἐδικαιώθη ἐν πνεύματι ὤφθη ἀγγέλοις ἐκηρύχθη ἐν ἔθνεσιν ἐπιστεύθη ἐν κόσμῳ ἀνελήφθη ἐν δόξῃ
Θεὸς = GOD
The other manuscripts has :
καὶ ὁμολογουμένως μέγα ἐστὶν τὸ τῆς εὐσεβείας μυστήριον oV ἐφανερώθη ἐν σαρκί ἐδικαιώθη ἐν πνεύματι ὤφθη ἀγγέλοις ἐκηρύχθη ἐν ἔθνεσιν ἐπιστεύθη ἐν κόσμῳ ἀνελήφθη ἐν δόξῃ
oV = Who
In other words, some people, says that in the old manuscripts, the word (GOD) does not exist, but the words (who) exists.
As I understand, in the old times, the sacred names of the bible (Nomina Sacra), they used to be written in abbreviation, I mean, they just write the first and the last letters of the word.
QEOS = GOD, they write it :
QS (with a horizontal line above the two letters to indicate the abbreviation ) which means GOD.
In the mean time
OS (without a horizontal line above the two letters ), means (Who)
As you can see, if the horizontal line is not drawn, then it is completely a different word, and here is the problem, since the horizontal line in the original manuscript is vanishing, some people says it is (Who) not (GOD).
From here, I want a Greek person who can read the manuscript to tell me one grammatical explanation about the usage of (Who) in the manuscripts, is it correct grammatically ??
There is a researcher called Scott Jones said the following
Some of what he said) Please read it carefullyFurthermore, the scant few manuscripts missing the horizontal lines creates a SEVERE grammatical problem, for the Greek word OS (without the horizontal lines, which means "who") is a masculine relative pronoun that ends up modifying a NEUTER mystery." Significantly, this is not only HORRIBLE GREEK GRAMMAR, but the resulting clause ends up containing A PREDICATE WITHOUT A SUBJECT noun - in this case the noun " -- I say, the RESULTING CLAUSE ENDS UP CONTAINING A PREDICATE WITHOUT A SUBJECT -- which is of course ABSURD. Naturally, the only people who don't understand how ABSURD this grammatical error is are Anglo-bible scholars and modern version translators who can't speak Greek, whereas native Greeks who are fluent in English and who can actually speak their own mother tongue of Greek, unlike Anglo-bible scholars and modern version translators who pawn themselves off as experts in a language they can't even speak, testify just how utterly ABSURD this grammatical solecism is, a solecism that is so severe that not even a fledgling Greek schoolboy would commit it.
My question is :
Is it really a grammatical mistake to use (Who) instead of (GOD) ??
I really wish any native Greek speaker to answer me regarding this matter.
I am really interested in this matter, even though if Who is used, the meaning is the same.
Thank you for your time.
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