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God's language in Genesis?

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
No, the study of the Bible reveals God as the Author. There were many human writers of which some we know some we don't. But the Authorship is God.

Good-Ole-Rebel
What about pure research leads you to that conclusion? Outline your hard evidence that shows such authorship.
 

Good-Ole-Rebel

Well-Known Member
What about pure research leads you to that conclusion? Outline your hard evidence that shows such authorship.

(2 Tim. 3:16) "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:"

(Matt. 4:4, 7, 10) "It is written...." (Matt. 4:4) "It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God."

(2 Peter 1:21) For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost."

(1 Thess. 2:13) "For this cause also thank we God without ceasing, because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, ....."

Read throughout the Old Testament the phrase 'Thus saith the LORD'. The number is extreme.

Good-Old-Rebel
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
(2 Tim. 3:16) "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:"
Inspiration =/= authorship, and it does not mention the Bible specifically. The term “scripture” just means writing.

(Matt. 4:4, 7, 10) "It is written...." (Matt. 4:4) "It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God."
This doesn’t mention the Bible, and it doesn’t say that God “authored” the Bible.

(2 Peter 1:21) For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost."
This doesn’t mention the Bible, and it doesn’t say that God “authored” the Bible.

(1 Thess. 2:13) "For this cause also thank we God without ceasing, because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, ....."
This doesn’t mention the Bible, and it certainly doesn’t say that God “authored” the Bible.

Read throughout the Old Testament the phrase 'Thus saith the LORD'. The number is extreme
The term “Thus saith the Lord” doesn’t mention the Bible, and it certainly doesn’t say that god “authored” the Bible.

These texts do not say what you think they say. We need hard evidence, or it’s not fact; it’s belief — and not well-founded belief.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
What about pure research leads you to that conclusion? Outline your hard evidence that shows such authorship.

Well, to me it is research that gives us the conclusion about Scripture.
The people of Acts 17:11 searched or researched the Scriptures daily to see if things are so.
With the modern day help of a comprehensive concordance it puts the Bible is alphabetical order for us.
Thus, we can search or research the Scriptures by subject or by topic arrangement.
Unlike other books, the Bible shows us comprehensive cross-reference verses and passages.
This gives us, and shows us, the internal harmony among the many Bible writers.
 

Good-Ole-Rebel

Well-Known Member
Inspiration =/= authorship, and it does not mention the Bible specifically. The term “scripture” just means writing.


This doesn’t mention the Bible, and it doesn’t say that God “authored” the Bible.


This doesn’t mention the Bible, and it doesn’t say that God “authored” the Bible.


This doesn’t mention the Bible, and it certainly doesn’t say that God “authored” the Bible.


The term “Thus saith the Lord” doesn’t mention the Bible, and it certainly doesn’t say that god “authored” the Bible.

These texts do not say what you think they say. We need hard evidence, or it’s not fact; it’s belief — and not well-founded belief.

Foolish reply you give.

Does Scripture not refer to the Old Testament?

Does Jesus not refer to the Old Testament?

'Moved by the Holy Spirit' means the Author was God.

The words from Paul and his companions were the words of God. These words are in the writings of the New Testament.

'Thus saith the LORD' means God said it. Thus God is the Author.

Good-Ole-Rebel
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Does Scripture not refer to the Old Testament?
Yes, but not to the New. And it doesn’t specifically refer to God’s “authorship.” This is something that you’re inferring, not something that it actually says.

Does Jesus not refer to the Old Testament?
No. He doesn’t say that the Bible “proceeds from the mouth of God.” “Word” and “bible” aren’t the same thing.

'Moved by the Holy Spirit' means the Author was God.
No, it means “inspiration” not “authorship.” Again: you’re inferring this; it doesn’t actually say it.

The words from Paul and his companions were the words of God. These words are in the writings of the New Testament.
Maybe; maybe not. We don’t know to what words Paul is referring, and we can’t assume that he means “stuff in the Bible,” since there was no bible when Paul wrote that.
'Thus saith the LORD' means God said it. Thus God is the Author
No, it means that the prophet is speaking on God’s behalf. It doesn’t say that God “authored” the Bible. Inference once again.
 

Good-Ole-Rebel

Well-Known Member
Yes, but not to the New. And it doesn’t specifically refer to God’s “authorship.” This is something that you’re inferring, not something that it actually says.


No. He doesn’t say that the Bible “proceeds from the mouth of God.” “Word” and “bible” aren’t the same thing.


No, it means “inspiration” not “authorship.” Again: you’re inferring this; it doesn’t actually say it.


Maybe; maybe not. We don’t know to what words Paul is referring, and we can’t assume that he means “stuff in the Bible,” since there was no bible when Paul wrote that.

No, it means that the prophet is speaking on God’s behalf. It doesn’t say that God “authored” the Bible. Inference once again.

The writings that make up the Bible are the written Word of God.

You won't find a sentence there that says the Bible is the Word of God. You will find the claim that the writings which make up the Bible are the Word of God.

Thus "All Scripture'" includes the books of the Bible.

Jesus covered the Old Testament. "It is written".

Paul covered his words. "Not as the word of men but as it is truth, the Word of God." And Peter verified that with Scripture which was considered the Word of God. (2 Peter 3:15-16)

"Thus saith the LORD" means the LORD Authored it. They did not even understand much of what they spake as it wasn't theirs. (1 Peter 1:10-12)

God is the Author of the Bible.

Good-Ole-Rebel
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
The writings that make up the Bible are the written Word of God
You haven’t proven that yet. You’ve asserted it, but you’ve provided no hard evidence.

You won't find a sentence there that says the Bible is the Word of God. You will find the claim that the writings which make up the Bible are the Word of God.
Show me.
Jesus covered the Old Testament. "It is written"
Perhaps. Or did he mean the written codes that are not in the Bible?

Paul covered his words. "Not as the word of men but as it is truth, the Word of God." And Peter verified that with Scripture which was considered the Word of God. (2 Peter 3:15-16)
Again: an inference. It doesn’t actually say that.
Thus saith the LORD" means the LORD Authored it
No, it means “Thus saith the Lord.” The sentence isn’t used in reference to scripture.

God is the Author of the Bible
You have yet to provide evidence.
 

dybmh

דניאל יוסף בן מאיר הירש
Which one?

Good-Ole-Rebel

Just to be clear, I don't care one way or the other. And, like ShunyaDragon said, most reasonable people can read your intention as implying the words, I believe. But, just strictly speaking about the rules... I think the below quote could be considered a rule violation, preaching, trying to convince someone to change their religious beliefs.

As I said, thus your problem is you don't believe the Bible.

Good-Ole-Rebel

It should read, "I think your problem is you don't believe the Bible."
 

JesusKnowsYou

Active Member
When God spoke in these verses, what language did he use?
It is my opinion and belief that He spoke the original and pure language.

My Church refers to this language as the Adamic language because it was the language that Adam spoke.
And who was he talking to? Why did he speak?
He spoke His commands so that His will would be manifest.

He either was speaking directly to the elements or to those intelligences that would command the elements.

He was also speaking to the Son (the Word) as well as His other children who were present.
Also: in what language did Adam and Eve speak to each other in?
The original and pure language I mentioned above.

This language was corrupted at the Tower of Babel.

It may still exist in written form.

I personally believe that the Olmec hieroglyphics could be the written form of this language. Or a derivative of it.
 

Good-Ole-Rebel

Well-Known Member
You haven’t proven that yet. You’ve asserted it, but you’ve provided no hard evidence.


Show me.

Perhaps. Or did he mean the written codes that are not in the Bible?


Again: an inference. It doesn’t actually say that.

No, it means “Thus saith the Lord.” The sentence isn’t used in reference to scripture.


You have yet to provide evidence.

The Scriptures declare it, as I have shown. The Scriptures assert it.

I already did show you.

Jesus quoted the Old Testament Scriptures.

No, they are direct statements. (1 Thess. 2:13) "...when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe." (2 Peter 3:15-16) "....even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; As also in all his epistles....which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction."

"Thus saith the LORD" indicates the origin of Scripture. Thus when it is written down, through the work of the Holy Spirit of God, it is God Authored. (Ex. 17:14) "And the LORD said unto Moses, Write this for a memorial in a book, and rehearse it in the ears of Joshua:..." (Ex. 34:27) "And the LORD said unto Moses, Write thou these words: for after the tenor of these words I have made a covenant with thee and with Israel."

The Bible is the Word of God.

Good-Ole-Rebel
 

Niblo

Active Member
Premium Member
Genesis 1:3 says

And God said, “Let there be light,” and there was light

He also says stuff in Genesis 1:6, Genesis 1:9, Genesis 1:11, Genesis 1:14, Genesis 1:20

But here are my questions:
  1. When God spoke in these verses, what language did he use

Welsh ;)
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
The Scriptures declare it, as I have shown. The Scriptures assert it.

I already did show you.

Jesus quoted the Old Testament Scriptures.

No, they are direct statements. (1 Thess. 2:13) "...when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe." (2 Peter 3:15-16) "....even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; As also in all his epistles....which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction."

"Thus saith the LORD" indicates the origin of Scripture. Thus when it is written down, through the work of the Holy Spirit of God, it is God Authored. (Ex. 17:14) "And the LORD said unto Moses, Write this for a memorial in a book, and rehearse it in the ears of Joshua:..." (Ex. 34:27) "And the LORD said unto Moses, Write thou these words: for after the tenor of these words I have made a covenant with thee and with Israel."

The Bible is the Word of God.

Good-Ole-Rebel
Oh, for pity’s sake! None of these passages explicitly say that God “authored” them. This assertion is belief, not fact.
 

Good-Ole-Rebel

Well-Known Member
Oh, for pity’s sake! None of these passages explicitly say that God “authored” them. This assertion is belief, not fact.

The assertion is made by the Bible. Which is what I have been saying. Yes, I believe it.

You don't. That's fine. You don't have to.

Good-Ole-Rebel
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
The assertion is made by the Bible. Which is what I have been saying. Yes, I believe it.

You don't. That's fine. You don't have to.

Good-Ole-Rebel
The assertion is made by you misinterpreting what the bible actually, explicitly says. The Bible does not explicitly say what you say it says. Your belief does not constitute fact.
 

Good-Ole-Rebel

Well-Known Member
The assertion is made by you misinterpreting what the bible actually, explicitly says. The Bible does not explicitly say what you say it says. Your belief does not constitute fact.

Yes it does. I gave you the verses. As I said, no problem. You don't have to believe it.

My belief makes me right with God. That is the only fact I am concerned with. Not your 'man pleasing' facts.

Good-Ole-Rebel
 

dybmh

דניאל יוסף בן מאיר הירש
Yes it does. I gave you the verses. As I said, no problem. You don't have to believe it.

My belief makes me right with God. That is the only fact I am concerned with. Not your 'man pleasing' facts.

Good-Ole-Rebel
It is circular reasoning though, right?
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
My belief makes me right with God. That is the only fact I am concerned with. Not your 'man pleasing' facts.
Facts are facts — no matter who they “please” — or not. Do you think your beliefs about the Bible that don’t fit the facts pleases God? I may be mistaken, but I didn’t think God had any truck with untruths. Therefore, it only stands to reason that if you’re believing in untruths, God might have a problem with that belief.
 
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