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For Jews or Christians: Why Shema means what a Jew says

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
What a lucky thing then that I was circumcised on the 8th day following my birth at my home, not in a hospital.

"Be careful to enter Y'shua's rest, a rest from working for salvation via mitzvoth, before we are judged."
... in your opinion.
 

nothead

Active Member
I'm late to this party but:

1. Echad is an implied compound as it used for Genesis 2:24, a man and a woman, One.

2. You are making His identity or name One when He makes it plural--in majesty and in persons, in Tanach, in Jewish liturgy, and more. It was Rambam and others who helped Ha Shem explain His One-ness.

3. Y'shua certainly did give a new interpretation of Shema by adding "love God with all your MIND."

1. It isn't EVEN used in Gen 2:24 as an "implied compound" rather a single humogeneous lump of flesh cavorting...or should I have said homogeneous? Well, fat participants considering...ONE flesh, meant a unit as ONE. It was idiom, idi...I mean idiomatic. Look up the TRIN scholar what's his name, Strong. 7 times used as SOME as opposed to the numerical singular uses, some 952 times. The compound one is made famous by Rob Bowman and completely false. It ever was the first number a child learns and had no connotation of UNITY per se, but stood alone as an adjective denoting single unit.

2. Rambam can bam somewhere else. I just told you the IDENTITY of God "YHWH" and the EXISTENCE OF GOD, "elohim," meaning a supernatural being, is UNIQUE and ALONE. Who you believe someone with a funny name, or nothead?

3. Shema means to make anything up you want to, in your BEAN? 'Cmon get behoovin' to be groovin'. Jewish POV. Just ask Rosebuds...Rosends. He knows some things. Like Hebrew language.
 

nothead

Active Member
A Hebrew speaker of modern Hebrew?

Is that what you think Strong was rendering? What good will that do? Why use lexicons in the first place? To tell you what words meant THEN when written?

I’m the one denying the right meaning of echad? The meaning of denying is: state that one refuses to admit the truth or existence of.
The truth is Echad is in Dt 6:4. If I change the word echad to yachid in Dt 6:4 then that’s denying the existence of the word echad as the truth.

After all Rosends said you still won't believe a simple definition of a word? Isn't this the way of trinitarians, to believe the impossible? Why BOOGLE us with words if they mean just what men think? I am using MEN in the sense of "sons of men" which was in the Bible, frequently derogatory.

The denial of the existence of the word echad in Dt 6:4 as the truth. That’s what we are debating here, are we not?

If you could eat your truth, you would barf. How about that? Real truth is as sweet as honey. God neither strives or sins, lies or tries to figure out stuff. God knows all, and Jesus knew some things, the things God would have him to know. Jesus knew NOT when he would come again, who would sit at his left and right hands, who touched his tzit-tzit, or that he would tarry in the Temple BEFORE the trip to Jerusalem so that he could then honor his parents...he could not feed his disciples or warn them BEFORE they abrogated lesser law by eating grains on the sabbath...etc. and etc. He created NO NEW THING, rather was constricted to healing, and saying, and suffering and being obedient to the best of his ability...doing SHEMA to the satisfaction of his God as no man ever did before. He did NOT as God bind to his momma or cleave unto her as a babe, the very CONSIDERATION of, implying she too would have to be divine...the FRUIT of JisG concept...God did NOT suckle a woman. OR call himself a WORM in Psalm 22, but the true miracle was he LOVED HIS GOD before he could SAY IT, as a babe and human suckling her breast.
 

RabbiO

הרב יונה בן זכריה
A Hebrew speaker of modern Hebrew?

The poster's reference to rosends is because rosends is an Orthodox rabbi whose knowledge and understanding of biblical Hebrew is, to put it bluntly, better than yours.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
The poster's reference to rosends is because rosends is an Orthodox rabbi whose knowledge and understanding of biblical Hebrew is, to put it bluntly, better than yours.
My knowledge of contemporary Hebrew is not bad either... A freilachen Sh"P to you.
 

JM2C

CHRISTIAN
The poster's reference to rosends is because rosends is an Orthodox rabbi whose knowledge and understanding of biblical Hebrew is, to put it bluntly, better than yours.
I agree with you, but my question still the same, i.e., why changed “echad” to “yachid”. An Orthodox rabbi [master or teacher] should be able to give the right understanding or explanation on why there was a changed, but none was given up to this point. None of you guys can explain it.
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
I agree with you, but my question still the same, i.e., why changed “echad” to “yachid”. An Orthodox rabbi [master or teacher] should be able to give the right understanding or explanation on why there was a changed, but none was given up to this point. None of you guys can explain it.

Yes. Nor can it be explained away easily how a husband and wife are One, yet two persons. Gen 2:24
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
I agree with you, but my question still the same, i.e., why changed “echad” to “yachid”. An Orthodox rabbi [master or teacher] should be able to give the right understanding or explanation on why there was a changed, but none was given up to this point. None of you guys can explain it.
What wasn't given is an answer you happen to like. But since you don't speak the language and don't acknowledge the flaws in your question, I doubt that is going to happen.
 

JM2C

CHRISTIAN
What wasn't given is an answer you happen to like. But since you don't speak the language and don't acknowledge the flaws in your question, I doubt that is going to happen.
I would walk away from this thread if you answer it right now.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
I would walk away from this thread if you answer it right now.
To which of your claims? (I count at least 5 claims you make).

You asked questions and I answered. You wanted the difference between echad and yachid, I gave it and showed you why your understanding is wrong. You wanted to know about why the word "yachid" is not used in reference to God and I explained that. You just don't like the answer. You claimed that echad, at various points, means "unified one", "one of many" and "one group". You made claims about etymology. I answered all of this. You just don't like my answers.

What is left is your claim that people changed words. You haven't shown this, just made the claim so there is nothing to answer. I can give specific post numbers to support what I have laid out here, but I might not get to it till after the sabbath.
 

nothead

Active Member
My knowledge of contemporary Hebrew is not bad either... A freilachen Sh"P to you.
Dt 6:4 Hear, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah:

The Hebrew rendition: YHWH Elohim, YHWH one. This reveals two things. "YHWH" or the NAME of God for all generations is "echad," or the adjective, "single."

And his EXISTENCE as "elohim of elohim" Deut 10 is also singular. You can hem and haw and put in some theoretical YACHID in order to modify the original. But then again you are again beset by the guess what, original.
 

JM2C

CHRISTIAN
This is your response to my brilliant post? Huh yourself. Maybe we can make a "huh" song together. Huh, huh, huh huh. Refrain, anyway.
"my brilliant post?" You know I never heard Bill Gates says something like “my brilliant ideas”
 

JM2C

CHRISTIAN
The Hebrew rendition: YHWH Elohim, YHWH one. This reveals two things. "YHWH" or the NAME of God for all generations is "echad," or the adjective, "single."

And his EXISTENCE as "elohim of elohim" Deut 10 is also singular. You can hem and haw and put in some theoretical YACHID in order to modify the original. But then again you are again beset by the guess what, original.
Please read this. The Trinity: The Old Testament Evidence: A Multi-Personal God

“Prior to the days of Moses Maimonides, the unity of God was expressed byechad which, as has been proved beyond a doubt, has as its primary meaning that of a compound unity. Maimonides, who drafted the thirteen articles of faith, in the second one sets forth the unity of God, using the wordyachid which in the Tenach is never used to express God's unity. From these facts it is evident that a new idea was injected into this confession by substitutingyachid which in every passage carries the primary idea of oneness in the absolute sense forechad which primarily means a compound unity. Hence from the days of Maimonides on, an interpretation different from the ancient one was placed upon this most important passage [Dt 6:4].” -David Cooper
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
Yes. Nor can it be explained away easily how a husband and wife are One, yet two persons. Gen 2:24

Yes, I was going to cite Rambam as "yachid-ing" the singular as one response to the times of the dark Inquisition. Same with yarmulkes. But the issue is one that was promulgated by Christians but affects Jews:

Why does understanding the Word require backflips, when as the Reformers pointed out, simplicity and comparing and conferring scriptures is what is required? My wife said yesterday to me in the car with the kids, "Right. A husband and wife are two, echad. Shema is echad and not just plural majesty..."
 
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