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First verses Book of Mormon/Bible comparisons

tumbleweed41

Resident Liberal Hippie
how about a hen hatching a snake egg? it is logical.
And the birth of a cockatrice results?

cockatrice_7198_sm.gif
 

Archer

Well-Known Member
And the birth of a cockatrice results?

cockatrice_7198_sm.gif
Cute pic. Things of legend and curses are not comparable. I think some things in the Bible are not meant to be taken literally.

Now for the argument posed by the OP I guess that is a good comparison. In my eyes the book of mormon is an inspired work of fiction (I believe the intent was good).

The Bible does posses some of the supernatural as well but that is meant as a curse or a warning. Never saw scripture talking about anything other than reference to curses and the like. Heards of wild :fill it in: never happened.
 

tumbleweed41

Resident Liberal Hippie
Genesis 30:37 And Jacob took him rods of green poplar, and of the hazel and chesnut tree; and pilled white strakes in them, and made the white appear which was in the rods. [SIZE=-1]
"And the flocks conceived before the rods."
[/SIZE]30:38 And he set the rods which he had pilled before the flocks in the gutters in the watering troughs when the flocks came to drink, that they should conceive when they came to drink. 30:39 And the flocks conceived before the rods, and brought forth cattle ringstraked, speckled, and spotted.

From Gods handy handbook of genetic engineering.....
 

LittleNipper

Well-Known Member
No, the Bible clearly includes bats in its list of birds:



In modern English, a bat is not a bird. The translated text is factually incorrect.

IMO, here are the only two choices you have to explain this:

- the Hebrew was factually incorrect, and this fault has been faithfully reproduced in the English version.

- the Hebrew term rendered "bird" doesn't actually mean "bird". The original Hebrew text may have been factually correct, but the translation is in error.

Which is it?


Well, that's just silly.


And you didn't answer my question: what parts of the Book of Mormon contradict the Bible?

Well, it is interesting that bat does not appear in the middle of the bird list. Why is that? And again, ancient Hebrew had no periods, commas, etc. They are modern inventions.

1. The Book of Mormon teaches that little children are not capable of sin because they do not have a sinful nature (Moroni 8:8). In contrast, the Bible in Psalm 51:5 clearly teaches that we have sinful nature from birth: "Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me" (NIV). (This does not mean that those who die in infancy are lost.*)

2. The Book of Mormon teaches that the disobedience of Adam and Eve in eating the forbidden fruit was necessary so that they could have children and bring joy to mankind (2 Nephi 2:23-25). In contrast, the Bible specifically declares that Adam’s transgression was a sinful act of rebellion that unleashed the power of sin and death in the human heart and throughout God’s perfect world (Genesis 3:16-19; Romans 5:12; 8:20-21). There is no Biblical support for the view that Adam and Eve could only fulfill the command to "be fruitful and multiply" (Genesis 1:28) by disobeying God’s command regarding the forbidden fruit (Genesis 2:17). The Book of Mormon teaching that these divine commands are contradictory, and that God expected Adam and Eve to figure out that in reality He wanted them to break the latter command ("of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it") in order to keep the former ("be fruitful and multiply"), has no basis in logic or the Biblical text, and attributes equivocation to God.

3. The Book of Mormon teaches that black skin is a sign of God’s curse, so that white-skinned people are considered morally and spiritually superior to black skinned people (2 Nephi 5:21). In contrast, the Bible teaches that God "made of one blood all nations of men" (Acts 17:26, KJV), that in Christ distinctions of ethnicity, gender and social class are erased (Galatians 3:28), and that God condemns favoritism (James 2:1).

4. The Book of Mormon teaches that, "it is by grace that we are saved, after all we can do" (2 Nephi 25:23; see also Moroni 10:32). In contrast, the Bible teaches that apart from Christ we are dead in sin (Ephesians 2:1,5) and unable to do anything to merit forgiveness and eternal life. Salvation is wholly of grace (Ephesians 2:8-9; Romans 11:6; Titus 3:5-6), not by grace plus works. Good works are a result, not the basis, of a right relationship with God (Ephesians 2:10).

5. According to the Book of Mormon, about 600 years before Christ, a Nephite prophet predicted that "many plain and precious parts" (1 Nephi 13:26-28) would be removed from the Bible. In contrast, from the Bible it is clear that during His earthly ministry, Jesus himself constantly quoted from the Old Testament Scriptures, and showed full confidence in their completeness and accurate transmission as they had survived down to His time. Jesus declared that "heaven and earth shall pass away, but my word shall not pass away" (Mark 13:31; see also Matthew 5:18), and promised His disciples who were to pen the New Testament that the Holy Ghost "shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you" (John 14:26); Jesus further promised the apostles that they would "bring forth fruit, and that your fruit should remain" (John 15:16). These promises clearly imply that the fruit of the apostles — the New Testament Scriptures and the Christian church — would endure.

6. According to a Book of Mormon prophecy (Helaman 14:27), at the time of Christ’s crucifixion "darkness should cover the face of the whole earth for the space of three days." In contrast, the New Testament gospel accounts declare repeatedly that there was darkness for only three hours while Jesus was on the cross (Matthew 27:45; Mark 15:33; Luke 23:44).

An earlier prophecy in 1 Nephi 19:10 implies the three days of darkness will be more than regional in scope for it says this sign will be "unto those who inhabit the isles of the sea, more especially given unto those who are of the house of Israel." The darkness then would extend over the ocean to the islands and reach as far as Israel in the Middle East.

Book of Mormon references to the fulfillment of this prophecy, however, use wording that could be understood to mean the three days of darkness was only in the Americas, stating that the three days of darkness would be "over the face of the land." (3 Nephi 8:3ff; 10:9). This appears to be the position of the late Mormon General Authority B. H. Roberts in his book Studies of the Book of Mormon, p. 292). If this is the case, then this would resolve the apparent contradiction between the Bible and the Book of Mormon regarding what happened at the time of Christ's death, for we would have 3 hours of darkness in Israel and 3 days of darkness on the American continents. However, this would make the earlier prophecies of 1 Nephi and Helaman internally contradictory with later BOM references, since their phrasing of "the isles of the sea ... those who are of the house of Israel" and "the whole face of the whole earth" is difficult to understand as merely a localized time of darkness.

7. The Book of Mormon people are said to have observed "all things according to the law of Moses (2 Nephi 5:10; 25:24). However, although they are supposed to have been Hebrews, they were descendents of the tribe of Joseph (1 Nephi 5:17) or Manasseh (Alma 10:3), not the tribe of Levi and family line of Aaron, as the Law of Moses dictates (Numbers 3:10; Exodus 29:9; Numbers 18:1-7), so they would not have had a legitimate priesthood.

8. According to the Book of Mormon, there were many high priests serving at the same time (Mosiah 11:11; Alma 13:9-10; 46:6,38; Helaman 3:25) in the New World, among those it describes as Jewish immigrants from ancient Israel who "kept the law of Moses" (e.g., 2 Nephi 25:10; Jacob 4:5; Jarom 1:5). In contrast, it is clear from the Bible that only one individual at a time occupied the office of high priest under the Old Testament dispensation (see, for example Leviticus 21:10; Matthew 26:3; Hebrews 8:6-7). (The mention in Luke 3:2 of "Annas and Caiaphas being the high priests" is not a real exception -- in Christ’s time Israel was under the domination of the Romans, who intervened to change the high priest at will. That is, this office became a kind of "political football," rather than following the appointment process dictated in the Law of Moses. See John 18:13, which describes Annas as "father-in-law to Caiaphas, which was the high priest that same year.")

9. The people described in the Book of Mormon operated multiple temples (Alma 16:13; 23:2; 26:29). This violates the dictates of the Old Testament Scriptures on two counts: First, God commanded Israel to build only one temple to reflect that fact that there is only one true God (Deuteronomy 12:5,13-14; 16:5-6). Second, the one legitimate temple was to be built in Jerusalem (Zion), the location designated by God (The Old Testament is filled with explicit references to God choosing Jerusalem [Zion] as the place where "His name would dwell" in the temple: for example, 1 Kings 8:44,48; 11:13,32,36; 14:21; 2 Kings 21:7; 23:27; 1 Chronicles 28:4; 2 Chronicles 6:6; 7:12,16; Psalm 78:68-69; Isaiah 18:7.

10. The most common biblical terms used to describe the Old Testament priesthood, temple and appointed feasts, are entirely missing from the Book of Mormon. Here are 10 examples of such biblical terms with their frequencies, that never appear once in the Book of Mormon:
  • "laver" (13 times in Bible)
  • "incense" (121 times in Bible)
  • "ark of the covenant" (48 times in Bible)
  • "sons of Aaron" (97 times in Bible)
  • "mercy seat" (23 in Bible)
  • "day of atonement" (21 times in Bible)
  • "feast of tabernacles" (17 times in Bible)
  • "passover" (59 times in Bible)
  • "house of the LORD" (627 in Bible)
  • "Aaron" – this name appears 48 times in the Book of Mormon, but never in reference to the biblical Aaron or the Aaronic priesthood
Conclusion: The contradictions between the Book of Mormon and the Bible constitute a most serious obstacle to accepting the Book of Mormon as Latter-day scripture that is supplemental to the Bible. The Bible came first, not the Book of Mormon. And whereas the Bible is organically linked to the earthly ministry of Jesus Christ by extensive surviving manuscript evidence going back as far as A.D. 125-30, the Book of Mormon is wholly lacking in any such evidences of ancient origin. Is it not reasonable, therefore, to make the Bible the standard for judging the Book of Mormon, and not the other way around? If we accept the Bible as our "measuring stick" for spiritual truth, the Book of Mormon must be rejected.
 

tumbleweed41

Resident Liberal Hippie
Conclusion: The contradictions between the Book of Mormon and the Bible constitute a most serious obstacle to accepting the Book of Mormon as Latter-day scripture that is supplemental to the Bible. The Bible came first, not the Book of Mormon. And whereas the Bible is organically linked to the earthly ministry of Jesus Christ by extensive surviving manuscript evidence going back as far as A.D. 125-30, the Book of Mormon is wholly lacking in any such evidences of ancient origin. Is it not reasonable, therefore, to make the Bible the standard for judging the Book of Mormon, and not the other way around? If we accept the Bible as our "measuring stick" for spiritual truth, the Book of Mormon must be rejected.
However, IF we accept facts as our "measuring stick" for truth, the Bible must be rejected.

Then what are we left with to measure "spiritual truth"?
 

Autodidact

Intentionally Blank
What you don't seem to grasp is that Hosea is saying that GOD inspired him in what to write. This isn't his story. Please tell me one error found in the Bible.

Just one? I could tell you hundreds. You sound like a Muslim. Uh, O.K., off the top of my head, the Tyre prophecy comes to mind.
 

LittleNipper

Well-Known Member
However, IF we accept facts as our "measuring stick" for truth, the Bible must be rejected.

Then what are we left with to measure "spiritual truth"?

There you have it. That is exactly what satan would have you do ----- reject the Holy Word of GOD and accept lies as truth.
 

tumbleweed41

Resident Liberal Hippie
Please tell me one error found in the Bible.

Well, you asked for it...


The authors of Ezra 2:3 and Neh. 7:8 enumerate the tribes that came back from captivity in Babylon. They disagree as to the numbers involved in some clans and tribes:
Ezra:
Arah: 775
Pahath Moab: 2812
Zattu: 945
Bebai: 623
Azgad: 1222
Adonikam: 666
Bigvai: 2056
Adin: 454

Nehamiah:
Arah: 652
Pahath Moab: 2818
Zattu: 845
Bebai: 628
Azgad: 2322
Adonikam: 667
Bigvai: 2067
Adin: 655
 

tumbleweed41

Resident Liberal Hippie
John 12:21 states that "The same came therefore to Phillip, which was of Bethsaida of Galilee, and desired of him..." Bethsaida was in the province of Gaulontinis, not the province of Galilee.
 

tumbleweed41

Resident Liberal Hippie
1 Kings 7:23 and 2 Chron. 4:2: "He made a molten sea, ten cubits from one brim to another: it was round all about and its height was five cubits; and a line of thirty cubits did compass it round about." The circumference of a circle is equal to the diameter times pi, or 3.1415. Therefore the circumference of the "sea" had to have been 31.4 cubits if its diameter was ten cubits.
 

tumbleweed41

Resident Liberal Hippie
Genesis 32:30 "Jacob said, 'I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved.'" John 1:18 "No man hath seen God at any time."
 

tumbleweed41

Resident Liberal Hippie
While describing the same incident, 2 Samuel 8:4 states that King David captured 1700 horsemen, and 1 Chron. 18:4 claims he captured 7,000
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
JESUS quoted verses of the Old Testament.
And how does this establish the truth of the New Testament?

Well, it is interesting that bat does not appear in the middle of the bird list. Why is that? And again, ancient Hebrew had no periods, commas, etc. They are modern inventions.
So... you do agree that there is a problem with modern translations, but you think it's a problem with punctuation rather than word choice. Fine. What other Biblical passages have had their meaning changed by incorrectly interpreting their meaning this way?

1. The Book of Mormon teaches that little children are not capable of sin because they do not have a sinful nature (Moroni 8:8). In contrast, the Bible in Psalm 51:5 clearly teaches that we have sinful nature from birth: "Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me" (NIV). (This does not mean that those who die in infancy are lost.*)
Is this another translation problem? The NASB renders this verse as "Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, And in sin my mother conceived me."

It's a subtle difference, but only the NIV translation supports your claim of a contradiction (and even then, only tenuously). Which one is more accurate?

2. The Book of Mormon teaches that the disobedience of Adam and Eve in eating the forbidden fruit was necessary so that they could have children and bring joy to mankind (2 Nephi 2:23-25). In contrast, the Bible specifically declares that Adam’s transgression was a sinful act of rebellion that unleashed the power of sin and death in the human heart and throughout God’s perfect world (Genesis 3:16-19; Romans 5:12; 8:20-21).
Here's the Book of Mormon passage:

22 And now, behold, if Adam had not transgressed he would not have fallen, but he would have remained in the garden of Eden. And all things which were created must have remained in the same state in which they were after they were created; and they must have remained forever, and had no end.


23 And they would have had no achildren; wherefore they would have remained in a state of innocence, having no joy, for they knew no misery; doing no good, for they knew no sin.


24 But behold, all things have been done in the wisdom of him who knoweth all things.


25 Adam fell that men might be; and men care, that they might have joy.

The way I read it, it's basically saying that good came out of the Fall, and that everything that happens does so according to God's plan. I don't see how this necessarily contradicts the idea that the Fall was an act of disobedience on the part of Adam and Eve.


There is no Biblical support for the view that Adam and Eve could only fulfill the command to "be fruitful and multiply" (Genesis 1:28) by disobeying God’s command regarding the forbidden fruit (Genesis 2:17).
No, there isn't, but it also isn't refuted by the Bible either.

The Book of Mormon teaching that these divine commands are contradictory, and that God expected Adam and Eve to figure out that in reality He wanted them to break the latter command ("of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it") in order to keep the former ("be fruitful and multiply"), has no basis in logic or the Biblical text, and attributes equivocation to God.
I think this is more an issue of the Book of Mormon conflicting with your interpretation and theology, not with the strict text of the Bible.

3. The Book of Mormon teaches that black skin is a sign of God’s curse, so that white-skinned people are considered morally and spiritually superior to black skinned people (2 Nephi 5:21). In contrast, the Bible teaches that God "made of one blood all nations of men" (Acts 17:26, KJV), that in Christ distinctions of ethnicity, gender and social class are erased (Galatians 3:28), and that God condemns favoritism (James 2:1).
Nice selective interpretation. I suppose you've never read any of the Old Testament passages that contradict the idea of equality, such as the Curse of Ham in Genesis 9, or the establishment of social classes on the basis of ethnicity and tribal affiliation in the books of the OT that law out Mosaic Law.

4. The Book of Mormon teaches that, "it is by grace that we are saved, after all we can do" (2 Nephi 25:23; see also Moroni 10:32). In contrast, the Bible teaches that apart from Christ we are dead in sin (Ephesians 2:1,5) and unable to do anything to merit forgiveness and eternal life. Salvation is wholly of grace (Ephesians 2:8-9; Romans 11:6; Titus 3:5-6), not by grace plus works. Good works are a result, not the basis, of a right relationship with God (Ephesians 2:10).
It seems you've been very selective about the parts of the Bible you choose to read... or at least which ones you take seriously. The Bible has a ready-made response to your claim in James 2:

14(Y)What use is it, (Z)my brethren, if someone says he has faith but he has no works? Can that faith save him?

15(AA)If a brother or sister is without clothing and in need of daily food,
16and one of you says to them, "(AB)Go in peace, be warmed and be filled," and yet you do not give them what is necessary for their body, what use is that?
17Even so (AC)faith, if it has no works, is dead, being by itself.
18(AD)But someone may well say, "You have faith and I have works; show me your (AE)faith without the works, and I will (AF)show you my faith (AG)by my works."
19You believe that [a](AH)God is one (AI)You do well; (AJ)the demons also believe, and shudder.
20But are you willing to recognize, (AK)you foolish fellow, that (AL)faith without works is useless?
21(AM)Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up Isaac his son on the altar?
22You see that (AN)faith was working with his works, and as a result of the (AO)works, faith was perfected;
23and the Scripture was fulfilled which says, "(AP)AND ABRAHAM BELIEVED GOD, AND IT WAS RECKONED TO HIM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS," and he was called (AQ)the friend of God. 24You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone.

However, you're right in one respect: even though they conflict with passages like these, other parts of the Bible do imply that salvation is through faith alone. I guess this is why they call the Bible "the big book of multiple choice".


Continued...
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
Part 2...

5. According to the Book of Mormon, about 600 years before Christ, a Nephite prophet predicted that "many plain and precious parts" (1 Nephi 13:26-28) would be removed from the Bible. In contrast, from the Bible it is clear that during His earthly ministry, Jesus himself constantly quoted from the Old Testament Scriptures, and showed full confidence in their completeness and accurate transmission as they had survived down to His time.
Did he? This seems like pure supposition on your part.

Jesus declared that "heaven and earth shall pass away, but my word shall not pass away" (Mark 13:31; see also Matthew 5:18), and promised His disciples who were to pen the New Testament that the Holy Ghost "shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you" (John 14:26); Jesus further promised the apostles that they would "bring forth fruit, and that your fruit should remain" (John 15:16). These promises clearly imply that the fruit of the apostles — the New Testament Scriptures and the Christian church — would endure.
Great. So then you're Catholic, I take it. Right?

Or Coptic? Or Orthodox?

Or are you all of the above? It would make sense if apostasy of the Church is impossible.

6. According to a Book of Mormon prophecy (Helaman 14:27), at the time of Christ’s crucifixion "darkness should cover the face of the whole earth for the space of three days." In contrast, the New Testament gospel accounts declare repeatedly that there was darkness for only three hours while Jesus was on the cross (Matthew 27:45; Mark 15:33; Luke 23:44).
So? The Gospels also say that Jesus would be "three days and three nights in the belly of the Earth", but if you go by the timeline they give, he was only there for one day and two nights.

Apparently, the Biblical authors weren't too big on counting or math. If you're not going to fault the Gospels for discrepancies like this, why fault the Book of Mormon?

7. The Book of Mormon people are said to have observed "all things according to the law of Moses (2 Nephi 5:10; 25:24). However, although they are supposed to have been Hebrews, they were descendents of the tribe of Joseph (1 Nephi 5:17) or Manasseh (Alma 10:3), not the tribe of Levi and family line of Aaron, as the Law of Moses dictates (Numbers 3:10; Exodus 29:9; Numbers 18:1-7), so they would not have had a legitimate priesthood.
Actually, your first two OT passages specify that the Levites are priests, but don't say that nobody else is. And in Numbers 18, God appoints the Levites priests, but presumably he could also appoint whoever he wanted. I'm not sure how this is necessarily a conflict.

8. According to the Book of Mormon, there were many high priests serving at the same time (Mosiah 11:11; Alma 13:9-10; 46:6,38; Helaman 3:25) in the New World, among those it describes as Jewish immigrants from ancient Israel who "kept the law of Moses" (e.g., 2 Nephi 25:10; Jacob 4:5; Jarom 1:5). In contrast, it is clear from the Bible that only one individual at a time occupied the office of high priest under the Old Testament dispensation (see, for example Leviticus 21:10; Matthew 26:3; Hebrews 8:6-7).
Leviticus 21:10? Why do you think this implies that only one individual can be high priest at a time?

10'The priest who is the highest among his brothers, on whose head the anointing oil has been poured and who has been consecrated to wear the garments, (K)shall not uncover his head nor tear his clothes;

Matthew 26:3 only states that they went to Caiaphas the High Priest. It doesn't even say that he was the only one, and certainly says nothing at all about multiple priests not being allowed.

And as for Hebrews, are you sure you got the right chapter and verse? I read the passage and don't see how it's relevant at all.

(The mention in Luke 3:2 of "Annas and Caiaphas being the high priests" is not a real exception -- in Christ’s time Israel was under the domination of the Romans, who intervened to change the high priest at will. That is, this office became a kind of "political football," rather than following the appointment process dictated in the Law of Moses. See John 18:13, which describes Annas as "father-in-law to Caiaphas, which was the high priest that same year.")
I don't see how John 18:13 supports your claim, and the only reason I can see to exclude Luke 3:2 is that it's inconvenient to your argument.

9. The people described in the Book of Mormon operated multiple temples (Alma 16:13; 23:2; 26:29). This violates the dictates of the Old Testament Scriptures on two counts: First, God commanded Israel to build only one temple to reflect that fact that there is only one true God (Deuteronomy 12:5,13-14; 16:5-6). Second, the one legitimate temple was to be built in Jerusalem (Zion), the location designated by God (The Old Testament is filled with explicit references to God choosing Jerusalem [Zion] as the place where "His name would dwell" in the temple: for example, 1 Kings 8:44,48; 11:13,32,36; 14:21; 2 Kings 21:7; 23:27; 1 Chronicles 28:4; 2 Chronicles 6:6; 7:12,16; Psalm 78:68-69; Isaiah 18:7.
Wait a minute: if there's only one temple, then isn't Paul incorrect in the Epistles when he describes each believer as a temple to the Lord?



10. The most common biblical terms used to describe the Old Testament priesthood, temple and appointed feasts, are entirely missing from the Book of Mormon. Here are 10 examples of such biblical terms with their frequencies, that never appear once in the Book of Mormon:
  • "laver" (13 times in Bible)
  • "incense" (121 times in Bible)
  • "ark of the covenant" (48 times in Bible)
  • "sons of Aaron" (97 times in Bible)
  • "mercy seat" (23 in Bible)
  • "day of atonement" (21 times in Bible)
  • "feast of tabernacles" (17 times in Bible)
  • "passover" (59 times in Bible)
  • "house of the LORD" (627 in Bible)
  • "Aaron" – this name appears 48 times in the Book of Mormon, but never in reference to the biblical Aaron or the Aaronic priesthood

How many times do these terms appear in the New Testament?
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
John 12:21 states that "The same came therefore to Phillip, which was of Bethsaida of Galilee, and desired of him..." Bethsaida was in the province of Gaulontinis, not the province of Galilee.
In a similar vein, the Gospels place Jesus' birth both during the reign of Herod the Great and during the period when Quirinius was governor of Syria... but Herod died in 4 BC and Quirinius didn't become governor until 6 AD. There was no period when both Herod the Great was on the throne and Quirinius was goveror of Syria.

Also, the census was just of Judea and Syria, not "the entire Roman world", as specified in Luke 2:1.
 

LittleNipper

Well-Known Member
John 12:21 states that "The same came therefore to Phillip, which was of Bethsaida of Galilee, and desired of him..." Bethsaida was in the province of Gaulontinis, not the province of Galilee.

The original town's location is unknown. There is/was more than just one. And some towns acquired new names centuries later.
 

LittleNipper

Well-Known Member
Part 2...


Did he? This seems like pure supposition on your part.


Great. So then you're Catholic, I take it. Right?

Or Coptic? Or Orthodox?

Or are you all of the above? It would make sense if apostasy of the Church is impossible.


So? The Gospels also say that Jesus would be "three days and three nights in the belly of the Earth", but if you go by the timeline they give, he was only there for one day and two nights.

Apparently, the Biblical authors weren't too big on counting or math. If you're not going to fault the Gospels for discrepancies like this, why fault the Book of Mormon?


Actually, your first two OT passages specify that the Levites are priests, but don't say that nobody else is. And in Numbers 18, God appoints the Levites priests, but presumably he could also appoint whoever he wanted. I'm not sure how this is necessarily a conflict.


Leviticus 21:10? Why do you think this implies that only one individual can be high priest at a time?



Matthew 26:3 only states that they went to Caiaphas the High Priest. It doesn't even say that he was the only one, and certainly says nothing at all about multiple priests not being allowed.

And as for Hebrews, are you sure you got the right chapter and verse? I read the passage and don't see how it's relevant at all.


I don't see how John 18:13 supports your claim, and the only reason I can see to exclude Luke 3:2 is that it's inconvenient to your argument.


Wait a minute: if there's only one temple, then isn't Paul incorrect in the Epistles when he describes each believer as a temple to the Lord?





How many times do these terms appear in the New Testament?

There was only a physical temple prior to the resurrection. The book of Mormon claims to be at least in part pre-New Testament.
 
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