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Explanation of the difference between Exodus 30:6 and Hebrews 9:3&4

AdamjEdgar

Active Member
CAVEAT

I believe Hebrews was written either directly or indirectly by the Apostle Paul (i have included my reasons for this in the second half of this post)
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I have puzzled over this question of the Alter of Incense location in Hebrews 9 for a while and it is only in the last few days that i really narrowed down on the fact that we are left with only 3 options:

  1. Paul had no idea what he was talking about and made an elementary historical mistake or
  2. Paul had a specific theological reason for differing in his description of the two compartments of the earthly and heavenly Tabernacles
  3. Its a translational/scribal error

  1. Paul made a historical mistake
We know that Paul, formerly Saul, was a Jewish Zealot who was trained by the Pharisees and Sadducees in the law of Moses…its simply not possible that such an individual would not recall exactly what the Mosaic Tabernacle layout should look like and thus make such a stupid mistake…especially given his obvious knowledge demonstrated by the depth of knowledge in this book and also the vast number of writings attributed to Paul who i believe was the human inspiration for the writing of this book in the New Testament.

2. Paul had a specific Theological reason​
I think this is the more likely interpretation and i have the beginnings of a theory on why i believe this might be the case.

When we study the Old Testament Sanctuary Service, we note that the only day in which the High Priest carried the Censor into the Most Holy Place was the Day of Atonement. What is unique about this day is that is specifically represented the future day of Christ’s death on the cross…it was different from the usual daily sacrifices. When Christ died on the cross (which the O/T Day of Atonement represents), he became our High Priest, the veil in the temple was torn in two signifying a change in the Sanctuary Service and this is the key to my theory.

I believe that When Christ died and the veil was torn in two, the need for the alter of incense carrying the prayors of sinners up and over the veil became redundant. Christ/High Priest now carried the censor into the Most Holy place and presents it before the Ark of the Covenant!

Some may ask, what about the description of the candlestick and table of showbread in Hebrews? These are still included because they represent Gods eternal power and sustaining of life...these do not change after the cleasing of sin from the universe...they remain, but the alter of incense is no longer required because there is no new sin after this point.

As further evidence of my theory on this, i note that some bible translations use different descriptors in Hebrews 9:3&4 (two different examples shown below)

NIV 3Behind the second curtain was a room called the Most Holy Place, 4which had the golden altar of incense and the gold-covered ark of the covenant. This ark contained the gold jar of manna, Aaron’s staff that had budded, and the stone tablets of the covenant.

KJV 3And after the second veil, the Tabernacle which is called the Holiest of all; 4Which had the golden censer, and the ark of the covenant overlaid round about with gold, wherein was the golden pot that had manna, and Aaron’s rod that budded, and the tables of the covenant;

It is my belief that this may be an avenue of study on why Paul seemingly got his history wrong in Hebrews 9:3&4.

3. Scribal error​
This is a possibility, but again, given the overwhelming historical knowledge passed down for centuries…indeed more than a millennia about the Old Testament Tabernacle and, given that some translations describe the golden censor instead of the altar of incense, i think this explanation is unlikely. Some excellent translations use Alter of Incense (NLT, ESV, NAS) however, I note that both Codex Sinaticus and Vaticanus use the “golden censor” descriptor and they date more than 2 centuries after Christ.

And let us not forget, despite the description of the “censor” in some translations, it still does not explain why there is no alter of incense in any part of the tabernacle in these translations that use censor instead of alter.

I thought that perhaps it might be interesting to have some ideas and discussion about this with the forum.

Some may ask why its even important? I believe it’s important because it is an example of potential biblical error and i think given Paul’s importance in the New Testament theology and the extensive writings attributed to his, this issue appears to discredit Paul’s knowledge…I mean if he was a murderer and was present at the stoning of Stephen, if Paul cant describe the Jewish tabernacle properly, how can he possibly be an authoritative figure on anything else?

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I would like to also just address the authorship issue because I am sure it will come up... i dont really think it changes the nature of my question above

This is a little bit off where the question above wished to go, but i guess its important enough to discuss. Below are my concern, some evidence in support, and my conclusion:

What those who may decide to focus on in terms of whether or not Paul wrote Hebrews fail to appreciate is, the question is more about the canonicity of Hebrews than just its author. Christians all claim that the Bible is the inspired word of God. If God cannot get his authors to record his statements accurately, then the entire bible becomes a mythical fairytale and that plays directly into the hands of atheism. Personally, i think this is something that most TEists for example, in the way they discredit the historical reading of creation and flood accounts, simply do not understand. Hence their doctrines are obtained from theological buckets full of holes leaking copious amounts of water.

There are references both ways on the topic of authorship…however, despite scholarly debate, you will find that most of the available references for the book of Hebrews associate it with Paul. His name more than any other is front and center with it. I am comfortable with Paul as its author (either directly or as a recording of his theology and written by an understudy or colleague).

Jerome and Augustine believed Paul wrote Hebrews and it was their view that eventually convinced the Eastern Church of this at the Sixth Synod of Carthage in 419 A.D

The Council of Trent 1546 - Paul

The 1611 King James bible has the following heading: “The Epistle of Paul the Apostle to the Hebrews.”

google - The Apostle Paul

Wikipedia - traditionally attributed to Paul the Apostle

Encyclopedia Brittanica - Paul most likely is the author, although it notes that it’s possible one of Paul’s understudies/disciples may have written it (which means that Paul is still the major influence in the books theology)

Catholic Church - Paul is the “indirect author” of Hebrews

biblegateway - possibly Luke, however, they cite Origen’s statement that it may have been dictated by Paul and written by another but “only God knows”

Martin Luther thought perhaps Apollos was its author

There is an academic paper on this by By Prof. Félix H. Cortez Andrews University in the US

Prof Cortez concludes that “I believe it is likely that Paul wrote Hebrews. We should, however, recognize the complexity and difficulty of the issue and respect and welcome those who assess the evidence differently.”

For those who like to read a supporting argument in its entirety, A link to his article is included

On the Authorship of Hebrews: The case for Paul

For those who like to simply skim over the main points of the supporting side, some quotes from the article supporting Pauline authorship are included below

Furthermore, Hebrews is anonymous to us, but it was not to the original audience. The audience knew who the author was. He requests them to pray for him so that he may be restored to them sooner (Heb 13:18–19).11 The author refers to a Timothy, who must have been known both by the author and the audience (13:23).

Clement, the oldest extant work of early Christian literature composed around AD 96, alludes clearly to Hebrews (1 Clem 36:1–5) and to other writings of Paul (e.g., 35:5–6) showing he held them in high esteem, though, with one exception, he does not identify the author in any of those references.

The Shepherd of Hermas, produced in Rome during the second century AD and the most popular noncanonical writing of the first centuries of Christianity, was written in part to explain that repentance was possible for sins committed after baptism. The best explanation is that it was trying to answer questions raised by Hebrews 6:4–8 and 10:26–31. The evidence suggests that views of a wholesale rejection of Hebrews in the west are overstated.

By the end of the 4th century, Ambrose, Pelagius, and Rufinus in the west had attributed Hebrews to Paul

Closer scrutiny shows that rejection of the Pauline authorship of Hebrews is less significant than it seems at the beginning. Marcion, who rejected Hebrews, also rejected the God of the Old Testament and all the writings of the Old Testament. He probably rejected Hebrews because of its abundant use of the Old Testament. He also rejected most of the New Testament.

The view that Irenaeus and Hippolytus rejected the Pauline authorship of Hebrews came from a comment made by Gobarus more than three hundred years later (ca. AD 600), according to the report made by Photius in AD 800! How much weight can we place on this report?


Tertullian says that Barnabas wrote Hebrews, but thinks Barnabas was communicating the ideas of Paul

The Arians probably rejected the Pauline authorship of Hebrews because of its high Christology
[for those unfamiliar with the significance of this point by the professor, Arians do not believe in the trinity and Christ is not considered God. Hebrews is problematic for that view]

I will sum up in the same way the article does…why is the authorship of Hebrews even important? If we discredit its authorship because supposedly Paul didnt write it, given Christ wrote nothing down…where does that leave the credibility of the Gospel? I will finish with a quote from the Paper by Prof Cortez…

Since Jesus did not leave any writings himself, the Christian church recognized the canonical authority of those writings that came from the apostles, those to whom Jesus entrusted the gospel (Matt 28:18–20).27 The apostolic criterion did not require that the apostles themselves wrote the books, but only that the books were produced under the authority of the apostles or by their associates.
 
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DNB

Christian
Who knows what traditions the Jews brought into the temple - although the alter of instance, at least as far as my recollection goes, was in the holy place along with the the table of showbread and the minora. Did the Jews introduce the scepter of incense into the most holy place at a later point in time, as they did with other laws and regulations as in Corban? That is, having both incense stands in each section?
Complete speculation on my part.

This is not my area of expertise, so ! did a brief search on the issue.

One viable explanation:
The scepter was brought into the Holy of holies (HOH) on the Day of Atonement (DOA), taken from the holy place. The author of Hebrews, who I do not believe it to be Paul, made reference to items that pertain to the absolution aspect of the ritual - it does not necessitate that the scepter remained in the HOH, but that it played an integral part in the ceremony. Therefore he mentioned it in the context of what was to be found in the HOH on the actual Day of Atonement?
 

AdamjEdgar

Active Member
Who knows what traditions the Jews brought into the temple - although the alter of instance, at least as far as my recollection goes, was in the holy place along with the the table of showbread and the minora. Did the Jews introduce the scepter of incense into the most holy place at a later point in time, as they did with other laws and regulations as in Corban? That is, having both incense stands in each section?
Complete speculation on my part.

This is not my area of expertise, so ! did a brief search on the issue.

One viable explanation:
The scepter was brought into the Holy of holies (HOH) on the Day of Atonement (DOA), taken from the holy place. The author of Hebrews, who I do not believe it to be Paul, made reference to items that pertain to the absolution aspect of the ritual - it does not necessitate that the scepter remained in the HOH, but that it played an integral part in the ceremony. Therefore he mentioned it in the context of what was to be found in the HOH on the actual Day of Atonement?
If one reads the original account of the tabernacle layout and then of its services, it is noted that BOTH items exist in the earthly tabernacle.

in the original, the Alter of Incense remained in the Holy Place, and only on the Day of Atonement did the Censor (which was stored in the Holy Place) gets carried by the High Priest into the Most Holy Place where it was placed before the Ark and then the Priest put incense into it thus spreading sweet aroma above the mercy seat of the Ark of the Covenant.

The point is,

1. why in the book of Hebrews was the Alter of incense missing?
2. Why do some bible translations use Alter of Incense and some translations use Censor?
3. Is there a mistake by the author of Hebrews?

In reponse to the above questions i find

The Alter of Incense is missing in Hebrews because it is talking about Christs intercession in the Heavenly Sanctuary on our behalf. On the Day of Atonement, the High Priest (which is now Christ) carries the prayers of the people into the Most Holy Place in the Censor. The point is, after Christs death on the cross, remember the earthly Temple veil was torn in two. This means that part of the sacrificial system is over...its redundant. When the author of Hebrews is describing Christs ministry in the Heavenly Sanctuary now, he is talking after Christs death...so there is not need for the alter of incense carrying our prayers up to heaven, Christ is doing that Himself...he is carrying the censor into the Most Holy Place.

I believe that there is no mistake by the author of the book of Hebrews in describing the layout of the Heavenly Sanctuary at that point in time, it is describing the building as it looked AFTER the death, resurrection, and ascension of Christ into heaven.
 
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DNB

Christian
If one reads the original account of the tabernacle layout and then of its services, it is noted that BOTH items exist in the earthly tabernacle.

in the original, the Alter of Incense remained in the Holy Place, and only on the Day of Atonement did the Censor (which was stored in the Holy Place) gets carried by the High Priest into the Most Holy Place where it was placed before the Ark and then the Priest put incense into it thus spreading sweet aroma above the mercy seat of the Ark of the Covenant.

The point is,

1. why in the book of Hebrews was the Alter of incense missing?
2. Why do some bible translations use Alter of Incense and some translations use Censor?
3. Is there a mistake by the author of Hebrews?

In reponse to the above questions i find

The Alter of Incense is missing in Hebrews because it is talking about Christs intercession in the Heavenly Sanctuary on our behalf. On the Day of Atonement, the High Priest (which is now Christ) carries the prayers of the people into the Most Holy Place in the Censor. The point is, after Christs death on the cross, remember the earthly Temple veil was torn in two. This means that part of the sacrificial system is over...its redundant. When the author of Hebrews is describing Christs ministry in the Heavenly Sanctuary now, he is talking after Christs death...so there is not need for the alter of incense carrying our prayers up to heaven, Christ is doing that Himself...he is carrying the censor into the Most Holy Place.

I believe that there is no mistake by the author of the book of Hebrews in describing the layout of the Heavenly Sanctuary at that point in time, it is describing the building as it looked AFTER the death, resurrection, and ascension of Christ into heaven.
I would contest your conclusion, as the author of Hebrews is not describing a Christian orientation of the Temple, but rather a Christian analogy to what a Jewish layout would have been, and still is (the author speaks in the present as though the Temple still exists - before 70 ad).

Your first two points I cannot in an astute manner respond. But as far as the third point is concerned, I cannot imagine that someone with such an in-depth understanding of the shadows and antitypes of the Levitical Law pertaining to dispensation of Christ, would be somewhat ignorant of certain critical and rudimentary aspects of the Temple set-up.
 

AdamjEdgar

Active Member
I would contest your conclusion, as the author of Hebrews is not describing a Christian orientation of the Temple, but rather a Christian analogy to what a Jewish layout would have been, and still is (the author speaks in the present as though the Temple still exists - before 70 ad).

Your first two points I cannot in an astute manner respond. But as far as the third point is concerned, I cannot imagine that someone with such an in-depth understanding of the shadows and antitypes of the Levitical Law pertaining to dispensation of Christ, would be somewhat ignorant of certain critical and rudimentary aspects of the Temple set-up.
Perhaps however, the problem i see with my view lies not in your claim, because the heavenly ministry does not include the sacrifice (that was on earth when Christ died on the cross) but in what we read in Revelation 8:3-5! If the angel here is Christ (which i think it is), then clearly he gets coals from the altar in this passage. However in Revelation 8, the altar is in the Most Holy Place before the throne (which is not the same as Exodus 30.) Now a simple solution could be that its because the temple veil was torn in two at the cross or, perhaps Revelation 8 3-5 is not after the resurrection and ascension but before them (we know that Revelation is not to be read sequentially...it goes back and forth through time). Nothing concrete in this, these are just my on the run thoughts btw.
 
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DNB

Christian
Perhaps however, the problem i see with my view lies not in your claim, because the heavenly ministry does not include the sacrifice (that was on earth when Christ died on the cross) but in what we read in Revelation 8:3-5! If the angel here is Christ (which i think it is), then clearly he gets coals from the altar in this passage. However in Revelation 8, the altar is in the Most Holy Place before the throne (which is not the same as Exodus 30.) Now a simple solution could be that its because the temple veil was torn in two at the cross or, perhaps Revelation 8 3-5 is not after the resurrection and ascension but before them (we know that Revelation is not to be read sequentially...it goes back and forth through time). Nothing concrete in this, these are just my on the run thoughts btw.
Adam, now you're getting a little too far off-base - to ascribe the identity of the angel with the golden censor as Christ, is a conjecture that is entirely unsustainable by Scripture.
In the Book of Revelation, the lamb that was slain but now lives, is Christ. He is referred to as the lamb throughout the entire book, with the possible exception of one or two appellations in certain passages, but never as an angel (if my memory serves me correctly).

Also, I would have to re-read the book to be certain, but I don't believe that the area in question is meant to be symbolic of the temple as far as the layout is concerned. Having a golden alter of incense by where the thrones of God and Jesus reside, already constitutes an environment unlike the temple.

But, again, I would have to re-read the book to have a more qualified response to offer. But, as far as Christ being the angel in Revelation 8:3-5, I categorically protest that conclusion.
 

AdamjEdgar

Active Member
Adam, now you're getting a little too far off-base - to ascribe the identity of the angel with the golden censor as Christ, is a conjecture that is entirely unsustainable by Scripture.
In the Book of Revelation, the lamb that was slain but now lives, is Christ. He is referred to as the lamb throughout the entire book, with the possible exception of one or two appellations in certain passages, but never as an angel (if my memory serves me correctly).

Also, I would have to re-read the book to be certain, but I don't believe that the area in question is meant to be symbolic of the temple as far as the layout is concerned. Having a golden alter of incense by where the thrones of God and Jesus reside, already constitutes an environment unlike the temple.

But, again, I would have to re-read the book to have a more qualified response to offer. But, as far as Christ being the angel in Revelation 8:3-5, I categorically protest that conclusion.
I accept that my saying the angel is Christ might be against the flow...however, SDA's believe that Michael the Archangel is Christ. In our doctrines we have no problem with the idea that Christ may be called an angel at times. Another example is found in Old Testament Genesis 32.

30So Jacob named the place Peniel,g saying, “Indeed, I have seen God face to face, and yet my life was spared.”

As I am Trinitarian, I believe the angel of the Lord in the Old Testament in the case of Jacob wrestling with a man in the night, may refer to Christ as well. Even if we say it isnt Christ, the problem increases...because Jacob says he fought with God. So did he fight the Father? You see the problem here dont you?

Christian interpretations​

The interpretation that "Jacob wrestled with God" (glossed in the name Isra-'el) is common in Protestant theology, endorsed by the Protestant reformers Martin Luther and John Calvin (although Calvin believed the event was "only a vision"),[11] as well as later writers such as Joseph Barker (1854)[19] or Peter L. Berger (2014).[20] Other commentaries treat the expression of Jacob's having seen "God face to face" as referencing the Angel of the Lord as the "Face of God". wikipedia
I do not think there is any problem calling Christ an angel...SDA's do not do that because we are of the belief that Christ is a lower form of God. We simply ascribe that word to Christ in Revelation because the book uses a lot of symbolism and therefore assigning the word to Christ at times in Revelation is not indicative of His status in heaven.

Lets face it, even the author of The Epistle to the Hebrews (quoting Psalm 8) writes the following about the incarnate Christ...

5For it is not to angels that He has subjected the world to come, about which we are speaking. 6But somewhere it is testified in these words:
“What is man that You are mindful of him,or the son of man that You care for him?7You made him a little lowera than the angels;
You crowned him with glory and honorb8and placed everything under his feet.”cWhen God subjected all things to him, He left nothing outside of his control. Yet at present we do not see everything subject to him. 9But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, now crowned with glory and honor because He suffered death, so that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone.
I would like to place a bit of a caveat on the above text from Psalms that is quoted by the writer of Hebrews...i think its referring to mankind and Christ. By humbling Himself and taking on the form of man, made Himself lower than the angels...he became one of us. I recognise that this text from Psalms is also referencing Adam (mankind) and is also a reference for the idea that Christ is the second Adam.
 
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DNB

Christian
I accept that my saying the angel is Christ might be against the flow...however, SDA's believe that Michael the Archangel is Christ. In our doctrines we have no problem with the idea that Christ may be called an angel at times. Another example is found in Old Testament Genesis 32.

30So Jacob named the place Peniel,g saying, “Indeed, I have seen God face to face, and yet my life was spared.”

As I am Trinitarian, I believe the angel of the Lord in the Old Testament in the case of Jacob wrestling with a man in the night, may refer to Christ as well. Even if we say it isnt Christ, the problem increases...because Jacob says he fought with God. So did he fight the Father? You see the problem here dont you?

Christian interpretations​

The interpretation that "Jacob wrestled with God" (glossed in the name Isra-'el) is common in Protestant theology, endorsed by the Protestant reformers Martin Luther and John Calvin (although Calvin believed the event was "only a vision"),[11] as well as later writers such as Joseph Barker (1854)[19] or Peter L. Berger (2014).[20] Other commentaries treat the expression of Jacob's having seen "God face to face" as referencing the Angel of the Lord as the "Face of God". wikipedia
I do not think there is any problem calling Christ an angel...SDA's do not do that because we are of the belief that Christ is a lower form of God. We simply ascribe that word to Christ in Revelation because the book uses a lot of symbolism and therefore assigning the word to Christ at times in Revelation is not indicative of His status in heaven.

Lets face it, even the author of The Epistle to the Hebrews (quoting Psalm 8) writes the following about the incarnate Christ...

5For it is not to angels that He has subjected the world to come, about which we are speaking. 6But somewhere it is testified in these words:
“What is man that You are mindful of him,or the son of man that You care for him?7You made him a little lowera than the angels;
You crowned him with glory and honorb8and placed everything under his feet.”cWhen God subjected all things to him, He left nothing outside of his control. Yet at present we do not see everything subject to him. 9But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, now crowned with glory and honor because He suffered death, so that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone.
I would like to place a bit of a caveat on the above text from Psalms that is quoted by the writer of Hebrews...i think its referring to mankind and Christ. By humbling Himself and taking on the form of man, made Himself lower than the angels...he became one of us. I recognise that this text from Psalms is also referencing Adam (mankind) and is also a reference for the idea that Christ is the second Adam.
Then allow me to explain to you my convictions about my Christology:
I am Biblical Unitarian, as opposed to Universal Unitarian - I believe that only the Father is God, and absolutely no other entity within the universe is deity.

Samson's parents also referred to the angel as God, in Exodus 3 the voice from the bush interchanges between an angel and God, as saint Stephen also refers to the angel. In Jacob's journey before meeting Esau after leaving Laban, again we see an interchanging use between angel and God. And, I can't think of anymore at the top of my head...?
But, the phenomenon is apparent, I believe, that a representative, an emissary, a messiah, etc, all can be referred to as God when speaking on His behalf. This is a very common principle in Jewish law, known as shaliah.

In Jewish law, a shaliaḥ (Hebrew: שָלִיחַ, [ʃaˈliaχ]; pl. שְלִיחִים‎, sheliḥim [ʃliˈχim] or sheliah, literally "emissary" or "messenger") is a legal agent. In practice, "the shaliaḥ for a person is as this person himself."[1] Accordingly, a shaliaḥ performs an act of legal significance for the benefit of the sender, as opposed to him or herself.


BTW, I didn't know that SDAs were trinitarian - maybe I'm confusing them with the LDS?
 

Wandering Monk

Well-Known Member
Who wrote the Epistle to the Hebrews? We know that the writer of Hebrews is not an apostle or one of our Master’s original disciples. The writer makes that clear when he says in Hebrew 2:1, “[The message] was declared first by the Master, and it was attested to us by those who heard.” This means that the writer is a second-generation believer, yet he writes like an apostle, like someone in authority, and he transmits apostolic tradition. For example, he says, “In the days of his flesh, Jesus offered up prayers and supplications, with loud cries and tears” (Hebrews 5:7). That’s an eyewitness report, something our author could have obtained from one of the Master’s original disciples, such as Simon Peter. The writer of the Epistle to the Hebrews speaks with an apostolic voice that we would not expect from a second-generation disciple unless he was of distinguished rank and well-recognized as an authority, one who comes from the Pauline circle, and one who knows believers from Italy (see Hebrews 13:24.)

The early church had many opinions about the authorship. The absence of a superscription leaves it anonymous. The early church wanted it to be an epistle of Paul. Some codices bundled it with Paul’s letters, but this document is not Paul’s style or language. The epistle is written in excellent Greek, unlike Paul’s. The theological concepts of Hebrews are not particularly Pauline. Moreover, Paul considered himself the apostle to the Gentiles, but the epistle to the Hebrews appears to be written to Jewish disciples of Yeshua.

Nevertheless, it seems that the epistle was written by someone within the Pauline entourage. One bit of evidence for this hypothesis is that the author makes reference to Timothy having been released from imprisonment and waiting for his arrival. Timothy was Paul’s chief disciple. The Hebrews author’s close relationship with Timothy puts him into Paul’s company. The second century church writer Origen addresses the authorship of Hebrews this way:

But as for myself, if I were to state my own opinion, I should say that the thoughts are the apostle’s [i.e. Paul’s], but that the style and composition belong to one who called to mind the apostle’s teachings and, as it were, made short notes of what his master said. If any church, therefore, holds this epistle as Paul’s, let it be commended for this also. For not without reason have the men of old time handed it down as Paul’s. But who really wrote the epistle, in truth, only God knows. (Origen, Homilies on Hebrews, quoted in Eusebius, Ecclesiastical History 6.14.1–4)

Some early church writers had the tradition that Paul’s colleagues, Luke the doctor or Clement of Rome, might have been involved in the composition. Modern speculations include Barnabas, Apollos, and even Priscilla (see Acts 18:2, 3) but there is no evidence or ancient tradition to support these theories.

Clement of Alexandria had a tradition that Paul’s traveling companion Luke wrote the epistle, translating it from an Aramaic document originally composed by Paul: “For as Paul had written to the Hebrews in his native tongue, some say that the evangelist Luke, others that this Clement himself, translated the epistle." (Eusebius, Ecclesiastical History 3.38:2)

One of many problems with Lukan authorship is that the Greek does not sound like Luke’s, nor does it betray any hint of having been translated from a Semitic original. The fourth-century bishop of Caesarea, Eusebius, cites the Lukan-Pauline theory, but he also notes an alternative tradition which suggests that Clement of Rome might have been involved in the composition.

Who was Clement of Rome? He was a Roman believer who followed Peter but also had contact with Paul. Paul referred to him as one of his fellow-workers, if indeed this is the same Clement (see Philippians 4:3.) According to tradition, Clement was Peter’s chief disciple. He was to Peter as Timothy was to Paul, and as Peter was to the Master.

The bishop Eusebius cites a tradition that Clement was the author of the epistle:

Others claim that it was Clement himself. This seems more probable because the epistle of Clement and that to the Hebrews have a similar character in regard to style, and still further because the thoughts contained in the two works are not very different. (Eusebius, Ecclesiastical History 3.38:2–3)

Modern scholars disagree with that assessment. They do agree that the style sounds similar, and at points, identical, but they explain the similarities by arguing that Clement was imitating the style of the Epistle to the Hebrews. Scholars also object to the theory that Clement wrote the epistle on the basis that the theology of the epistle is completely different from Clement’s. Whereas the book of Hebrews teaches the cancellation of the Temple and the sacrificial system, First Clement seems to regard that system as a worthy model for churches to emulate with respect to Ecclesiastical authority. On this basis, most scholars say that the same writer could not have written both First Clement and the Epistle to the Hebrews.

This opinion is based on presuppositions arising from an incorrect theological perspective on the Temple and priesthood. Hebrews does not need to be read as teaching the cancellation of the Temple and the Levitical system. Once this perspective on the book is adopted, then Clement of Rome is a possible and even likely candidate. His authorship is backed up by a strong historical tradition and by similarity of thought and style between Hebrews and other Clementine epistles.
 

Ebionite

Well-Known Member
Who wrote the Epistle to the Hebrews?
Apollos.

And a certain Jew named Apollos, born at Alexandria, an eloquent man, [and] mighty in the scriptures, came to Ephesus.
Acts 18:24

I have planted, Apollos watered; but God gave the increase.
1 Corinthians 3:6
 
CAVEAT

I believe Hebrews was written either directly or indirectly by the Apostle Paul (i have included my reasons for this in the second half of this post)
---------------------------


I have puzzled over this question of the Alter of Incense location in Hebrews 9 for a while and it is only in the last few days that i really narrowed down on the fact that we are left with only 3 options:

  1. Paul had no idea what he was talking about and made an elementary historical mistake or
  2. Paul had a specific theological reason for differing in his description of the two compartments of the earthly and heavenly Tabernacles
  3. Its a translational/scribal error

  1. Paul made a historical mistake
We know that Paul, formerly Saul, was a Jewish Zealot who was trained by the Pharisees and Sadducees in the law of Moses…its simply not possible that such an individual would not recall exactly what the Mosaic Tabernacle layout should look like and thus make such a stupid mistake…especially given his obvious knowledge demonstrated by the depth of knowledge in this book and also the vast number of writings attributed to Paul who i believe was the human inspiration for the writing of this book in the New Testament.

2. Paul had a specific Theological reason​
I think this is the more likely interpretation and i have the beginnings of a theory on why i believe this might be the case.

When we study the Old Testament Sanctuary Service, we note that the only day in which the High Priest carried the Censor into the Most Holy Place was the Day of Atonement. What is unique about this day is that is specifically represented the future day of Christ’s death on the cross…it was different from the usual daily sacrifices. When Christ died on the cross (which the O/T Day of Atonement represents), he became our High Priest, the veil in the temple was torn in two signifying a change in the Sanctuary Service and this is the key to my theory.

I believe that When Christ died and the veil was torn in two, the need for the alter of incense carrying the prayors of sinners up and over the veil became redundant. Christ/High Priest now carried the censor into the Most Holy place and presents it before the Ark of the Covenant!

Some may ask, what about the description of the candlestick and table of showbread in Hebrews? These are still included because they represent Gods eternal power and sustaining of life...these do not change after the cleasing of sin from the universe...they remain, but the alter of incense is no longer required because there is no new sin after this point.

As further evidence of my theory on this, i note that some bible translations use different descriptors in Hebrews 9:3&4 (two different examples shown below)

NIV 3Behind the second curtain was a room called the Most Holy Place, 4which had the golden altar of incense and the gold-covered ark of the covenant. This ark contained the gold jar of manna, Aaron’s staff that had budded, and the stone tablets of the covenant.

KJV 3And after the second veil, the Tabernacle which is called the Holiest of all; 4Which had the golden censer, and the ark of the covenant overlaid round about with gold, wherein was the golden pot that had manna, and Aaron’s rod that budded, and the tables of the covenant;

It is my belief that this may be an avenue of study on why Paul seemingly got his history wrong in Hebrews 9:3&4.

3. Scribal error​
This is a possibility, but again, given the overwhelming historical knowledge passed down for centuries…indeed more than a millennia about the Old Testament Tabernacle and, given that some translations describe the golden censor instead of the altar of incense, i think this explanation is unlikely. Some excellent translations use Alter of Incense (NLT, ESV, NAS) however, I note that both Codex Sinaticus and Vaticanus use the “golden censor” descriptor and they date more than 2 centuries after Christ.

And let us not forget, despite the description of the “censor” in some translations, it still does not explain why there is no alter of incense in any part of the tabernacle in these translations that use censor instead of alter.

I thought that perhaps it might be interesting to have some ideas and discussion about this with the forum.

Some may ask why its even important? I believe it’s important because it is an example of potential biblical error and i think given Paul’s importance in the New Testament theology and the extensive writings attributed to his, this issue appears to discredit Paul’s knowledge…I mean if he was a murderer and was present at the stoning of Stephen, if Paul cant describe the Jewish tabernacle properly, how can he possibly be an authoritative figure on anything else?

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I would like to also just address the authorship issue because I am sure it will come up... i dont really think it changes the nature of my question above

This is a little bit off where the question above wished to go, but i guess its important enough to discuss. Below are my concern, some evidence in support, and my conclusion:

What those who may decide to focus on in terms of whether or not Paul wrote Hebrews fail to appreciate is, the question is more about the canonicity of Hebrews than just its author. Christians all claim that the Bible is the inspired word of God. If God cannot get his authors to record his statements accurately, then the entire bible becomes a mythical fairytale and that plays directly into the hands of atheism. Personally, i think this is something that most TEists for example, in the way they discredit the historical reading of creation and flood accounts, simply do not understand. Hence their doctrines are obtained from theological buckets full of holes leaking copious amounts of water.

There are references both ways on the topic of authorship…however, despite scholarly debate, you will find that most of the available references for the book of Hebrews associate it with Paul. His name more than any other is front and center with it. I am comfortable with Paul as its author (either directly or as a recording of his theology and written by an understudy or colleague).

Jerome and Augustine believed Paul wrote Hebrews and it was their view that eventually convinced the Eastern Church of this at the Sixth Synod of Carthage in 419 A.D

The Council of Trent 1546 - Paul

The 1611 King James bible has the following heading: “The Epistle of Paul the Apostle to the Hebrews.”

google - The Apostle Paul

Wikipedia - traditionally attributed to Paul the Apostle

Encyclopedia Brittanica - Paul most likely is the author, although it notes that it’s possible one of Paul’s understudies/disciples may have written it (which means that Paul is still the major influence in the books theology)

Catholic Church - Paul is the “indirect author” of Hebrews

biblegateway - possibly Luke, however, they cite Origen’s statement that it may have been dictated by Paul and written by another but “only God knows”

Martin Luther thought perhaps Apollos was its author

There is an academic paper on this by By Prof. Félix H. Cortez Andrews University in the US

Prof Cortez concludes that “I believe it is likely that Paul wrote Hebrews. We should, however, recognize the complexity and difficulty of the issue and respect and welcome those who assess the evidence differently.”

For those who like to read a supporting argument in its entirety, A link to his article is included

On the Authorship of Hebrews: The case for Paul

For those who like to simply skim over the main points of the supporting side, some quotes from the article supporting Pauline authorship are included below

Furthermore, Hebrews is anonymous to us, but it was not to the original audience. The audience knew who the author was. He requests them to pray for him so that he may be restored to them sooner (Heb 13:18–19).11 The author refers to a Timothy, who must have been known both by the author and the audience (13:23).

Clement, the oldest extant work of early Christian literature composed around AD 96, alludes clearly to Hebrews (1 Clem 36:1–5) and to other writings of Paul (e.g., 35:5–6) showing he held them in high esteem, though, with one exception, he does not identify the author in any of those references.

The Shepherd of Hermas, produced in Rome during the second century AD and the most popular noncanonical writing of the first centuries of Christianity, was written in part to explain that repentance was possible for sins committed after baptism. The best explanation is that it was trying to answer questions raised by Hebrews 6:4–8 and 10:26–31. The evidence suggests that views of a wholesale rejection of Hebrews in the west are overstated.

By the end of the 4th century, Ambrose, Pelagius, and Rufinus in the west had attributed Hebrews to Paul

Closer scrutiny shows that rejection of the Pauline authorship of Hebrews is less significant than it seems at the beginning. Marcion, who rejected Hebrews, also rejected the God of the Old Testament and all the writings of the Old Testament. He probably rejected Hebrews because of its abundant use of the Old Testament. He also rejected most of the New Testament.

The view that Irenaeus and Hippolytus rejected the Pauline authorship of Hebrews came from a comment made by Gobarus more than three hundred years later (ca. AD 600), according to the report made by Photius in AD 800! How much weight can we place on this report?


Tertullian says that Barnabas wrote Hebrews, but thinks Barnabas was communicating the ideas of Paul

The Arians probably rejected the Pauline authorship of Hebrews because of its high Christology
[for those unfamiliar with the significance of this point by the professor, Arians do not believe in the trinity and Christ is not considered God. Hebrews is problematic for that view]

I will sum up in the same way the article does…why is the authorship of Hebrews even important? If we discredit its authorship because supposedly Paul didnt write it, given Christ wrote nothing down…where does that leave the credibility of the Gospel? I will finish with a quote from the Paper by Prof Cortez…

Since Jesus did not leave any writings himself, the Christian church recognized the canonical authority of those writings that came from the apostles, those to whom Jesus entrusted the gospel (Matt 28:18–20).27 The apostolic criterion did not require that the apostles themselves wrote the books, but only that the books were produced under the authority of the apostles or by their associates.

The account at Hebrews 9:2-4 are describing two different locations. The position (“Holy Place”) of the “altar of incense” is where incense was required to be burned in the morning and evenings every day. (Exodus 30:7; 37:25) This table-within the tabernacle-was located just before the curtain of the “Most Holy” so that it is spoken of as being “before the ark of the testimony.”-Exodus 40:5, 26, 27.
 
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