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Einstein and "spooky actions"

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
As so often happens in threads (particularly ones in which I am involved in, but that's purely coincidental) things became somewhat off-topic. I have begun a new topic so that the discussion will be on topic. And that topic has to do with a well-known quip of Einstein's, what it meant then and what it means now.

It all began in a galaxy far, far, away (but which happens to be the one Earth is in), and this comment:
Sorry but that is totally wrong. There is no spooky action at a distance. There is no need of hidden parameters. And no signal was sent faster than the speed of light. It simply means that if two particles are "entangled", it means that they were prepared in a given quantum state, and unless there is an interaction, they will continue to stay in that quantum state.

For any interested parties who might not know, "spooky action" is a translation of something Einstein said. Rather than take my word it, though, I will let use a description from a study published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Science. Please note that I am not trying to connect the actual study itself to Einstein's work or to anything else. I am simply using their description because
1) That way no one has to take my word for it
and'
2) Generally speaking, PNAS doesn't publish papers with glaring errors in them.

The description:
"In simple words, the correlated spins of the EPR experiment are in some contact over arbitrary space-like distances of our space–time continuum, and if one spin is measured in one station, the correlated spin in another station is instantaneously influenced. This fact contradicts the locality conditions of Einstein and Einstein's very argument, for lack of completeness of quantum mechanics. Einstein called the instantaneous interaction of the spatially separated spins “spukhafte Fernwirkungen” (spooky action at a distance). He did not accept the possibility of such spooky action and, because quantum mechanics appeared to demand it, it had to be at least incomplete. The Bell theorem and its standard interpretation have turned the logic around. Its supporters now claim that local hidden parameters do not exist and cannot explain the EPR experiments. Quantum mechanics does agree with these experiments, and spooky action at a distance must be accepted as a fact of nature." (source)

EPR is shorthand for this study:

Einstein, A., Podolsky, B., & Rosen, N. (1935). Can quantum-mechanical description of physical reality be considered complete?. Physical review, 47(10), 777.

In it, the authors argue that quantum mechanics is either incomplete, or non-local. To be clear, non-local means that a physical system in quantum mechanics can be characterized as being in two (or more) states at the same time.

As the authors of the PNAS paper (quoted above) note, Einstein believed that this non-locality indicated QM was incomplete. Once again, however, you don't need to take my word for it:

"A good way of thinking about such apparent instantaneous “spooky action at a distance” (as Einstein put it) is to realize that the entangled state must have been prepared locally by having let the two subsystems interact at some point in the past. When these two subsystems are then separated from each other, the quantum state is simply “spread out” (i.e., delocalized) over a larger spatial region." p. 31

Schlosshauer, M. A. (2007). Decoherence: and the quantum-to-classical transition. Springer Verlag.

"John Stewart Bell further drew out the counter-intuitive implications of the presence of entangled states in quantum theory by delimiting the border between local classically explicable behavior and behavior that is not locally causal, with a theorem involving an inequality. This inequality must be obeyed by local (hidden-variables) theories that might be introduced in order to explain all correlations between two distant subsystems forming a compound system, such as one described by the above state when the particles are well separated. Schrödinger believed that such states of widely separated subsystems could not be realizable in practice. However, it was subsequently found to be violated in essence by a broad range of quantum-mechanical systems, such as a pair of photons in the singlet state of Equation 1.21. Bell-type theorems are discussed further in Section 1.8, below. When asked to describe his theorem in “plain English,” Bell said that
'It comes from an analysis of the consequences of the idea that there should be no action at a distance, under certain conditions that Einstein, Podolsky, and Rosen focussed attention on in 1935—conditions which lead to some very strange correlations as predicted by quantum mechanics.'" p. 20
Jaeger, G. (2009). Entanglement, information, and the interpretation of quantum mechanics. Springer.

The member quoted above disagrees with me on this:
This shows you absolutely got it wrong. Aspect's experiment showed that Bell was right, and what Bell had claimed was that there are no hidden local parameters. IOW, what Einstein had claimed - spooky action at a distance - is wrong. Get it. What all this demonstrates is that quantum logic is different than classical logic.

NOTE: please refrain from posting links which you have no clue what these articles are talking about.

The reference to Aspect is to Alain Aspect who, with his colleagues, published the first experimental realization of nonlocality in a ground-breaking 1982 study
"Experimental realization of Einstein-Podolsky-Rosen-Bohm Gedankenexperiment: a new violation of Bell's inequalities" (source)

This study showed correlations between nonlocal particles (i.e., spatially seperated, in this case by a few meters) that couldn't be explained via "hidden variables".

Gisin, the physicist usually named right after Aspect, performed basically the same experiment, but over a period of many kilometers and more than once. In "Violation of Bell inequalities by photons more than 10 km apart", the authors state:

"Quantum theory is nonlocal. Indeed, quantum theory predicts correlations among distant measurement outcomes that cannot be explained by any theory which involves only local variables. This was anticipated by Einstein, Podolsky, and Rosen."

Once again, however, there seems to be a problem with what Einstein said:
I'm not going to go over what Einstein said, as his words are a mass of confusion. But what Aspect established is that Bell's inequalities are violated, meaning that classical logic doesn't apply to quantum system.

Of course, the entire point of EPR was to prove that "classical logic doesn't apply to quantum system", but somehow Aspect (who cites Einstein), seems to have missed this. Not only that, but the entire physics community seems to have fundamentally misunderstood one of the most famous papers ever published:
Sorry, that's a lot of nonsense. Einstein can think whatever. He might have believed that there is a spooky action at a distance, and as I said, Einstein misunderstood QM. So what he thought is irrelevant. But people seem to have a vested interest in resuscitating his arcane arguments.

Einstein was wrong in that he thought "spooky action at a distance" meant QM must be incomplete. In EPR, those are the options: either we have nonlocality, or QM is incomplete. Einstein believed that QM must be incomplete, and in that he was wrong. Because the "spooky action" is well-established. EPR has been cited well over 10,000 times, including this past month.

Yes, people seem to keep on going back to EPR. Of course, these people happen to be (among others) the greatest physicists that ever lived, along with the rest of the physics community, e.g., Aspect, Gisen, Hawking, Penrose, Stapp, Wheeler, Tegmark, Smolin, Barrow, Vilenkin, Susskind, Hartle, Deutsch, Bohm, Heisenberg, and not to mention the hundreds of studies published already in 2013 alone in journals like Physical Review Letters (which published, this past April, "Einstein-Podolsky-Rosen Spatial Entanglement in Ordered and Anderson Photonic Lattices"), Nature Physics, Science, PNAS, and on and on.

What is it about these idiot physicists who don't understand what you so clearly do?
However, I am told that I have misunderstood everything I've read, and been informed that we have an expert to explain why:
No, if there is any troll, it is you as you are totally incompetent and can't deliver the proper answers. BTW, providing links that are beyond your comprehension will only fool the amateurs. The problem is I'm no amateur. I have a PHD in physics, plus 25 years of teaching that stuff. There's very little you can teach me. OTOH, I can teach you Gauge Theory, Spontaneous Symmetry Breaking, the Higgs Mechanism, Wilson Loop, Feynman path integral, QED, QCD and QFTCST. If you want to test me on any of those topics, try.

So, my first question is given this expertise, why is it that scientific literature, from monograph series to the most distinguished journals on the planet, don't reflect the views this experts views?
 
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LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
I'm sorry to disappoint, but I'm not sure there will be much of a debate in the end (I hope the only wasted popcorn was emoticon popcorn). It is the internet age, an age where the anonymous can become famous, the famous infamous, the obscure...abscure? Well, at any rate the point is that web 2.0 has even made careers for PhDs like Richard Carrier, and has gotten amateur climate "auditors" like Steve McIntyre published, even used as a reviewer for the IPCC, both through blogs, the same medium used here:
Sure, if you want to make a fool of yourself, I'll oblige. Don't ever say I didn't warn you. Just to give a taste, from my personal notes:
Gauge Theory and Higgs Mechanism

The problem, however, is that Dr. Carrier really has a PhD, and Steve McIntyre has never pretended to be anything other than an amateur.
No, if there is any troll, it is you as you are totally incompetent and can't deliver the proper answers. BTW, providing links that are beyond your comprehension will only fool the amateurs. The problem is I'm no amateur. I have a PHD in physics, plus 25 years of teaching that stuff. There's very little you can teach me. OTOH, I can teach you Gauge Theory, Spontaneous Symmetry Breaking, the Higgs Mechanism, Wilson Loop, Feynman path integral, QED, QCD and QFTCST. If you want to test me on any of those topics, try.

When one links to a blog that gives rather clear identification, and links to one's blog via one's homepage: Joseph Palazzo Homepage, which then identifies one as a self-published science fiction author, questions start to form. Why is there no mention of a physics background? Why would a PhD in physics follow so many undergraduate youtube physics lectures? Why state that one is a PhD with 25 years of experience teaching on a forum, but elsewhere say "my hobby is to study physics"? And while a hobbyist might require a solutions guide to the problems in an intro textbook on particle physics, would a PhD? And does teaching at the Montreal Catholic School Commission count as "25 years of teaching that stuff"?

However, one thing seems fairly evident from various forum participation and comments on popular news reports on studies. This is hardly the first attack on Einstein or even physicists:
"Why String Theory is Wrong"
"In String Theory, one of the most crucial calculations involves summing all the numbers from 1 to infinity, which obviously should be infinite. But not in ST, where the Rieman Zeta Function is used, and gives a value of -1/12??? Yes, if you add all the numbers from 1 to a million, you get a big number; if you add all the numbers from 1 to a trillion, you get an even bigger sum. But should you add all of them to infinity, not only do you get a fraction, but a negative one? How do physicists get it so wrong?"

Indeed.

Some of the first physics book I looked at were my father's undergrad textbooks. While they're a little dated, they do cover such topics as, say, absolutely basic analysis. In fact, most intro calculus books (where analysis begins) cover these wild speculations of String theory which involve basic concepts like limits, series, etc. In fact, I'm fairly certain that Zeno had a few comments on this a while back. As in over 2,000 years ago. I can certainly understand the difficulty one might have with complex analysis, but with the mere idea of summing infinite terms and with convergence?
 
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godnotgod

Thou art That
"spooky action' must've given him the heebie-jeebies. it's that old intuition working again. LOL.
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
"spooky action' must've given him the heebie-jeebies. it's that old intuition working again. LOL.

I'm not sure who you are talking about. Einstein called nonlocality "spooky action" and tried to prove that QM was incomplete because he believed that this was a logical absurdity. He was wrong. Or rather, while he was correct that QM entailed what he called "spooky action", he was wrong to think this demonstrated the incompleteness of QM. That was his intuition. Nonlocality is logically absurd, therefore tried to show QM was incomplete.

Einstein's logic was correct, in that either QM was incomplete (which was not the case), or QM was nonlocal. Einstein's intuition was that QM was incomplete, not that QM was nonlocal.

Einstein's intuition failed. The reason his work is valuable is because the logic was good, while his intuition was wrong. His logic showed two options, and his intuition picked the wrong one.

Yay intuition.
 

godnotgod

Thou art That
Some people's ego-integrity cannot abide the concept of Maya.

Are you saying it's all Just a Big Act?:)

dighabuddha.jpg
 

zaybu

Active Member
In EPR, those are the options: either we have nonlocality, or QM is incomplete.

It was Einstein who framed the discussion in those terms. It doesn't mean it is correct. Bell made two assumptions: 1) realism or logic, and 2) locality. If his inequality is violated, which was proved experimentally subsequently by Aspect, it means one of those two is wrong. You have focused solely on the second assumption, but most physicists have realized that it is the first assumption, which I have mentioned at least twice: classical logic fails to describe quantum system. Once you accept that, then there is no need to invoke a spooky action at a distance. Now if you want to believe in a spooky action at a distance, go ahead, it's a free country. But there's no need for that, and there's no need to accept Einstein's framing the discussion. Physicists have moved on to develop QFT, QED, QCD and the Standard Model. But there are still those who are harping on this notion of spooky action at a distance, and they are wasting their time. End of story.
 
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LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
From just Einstein's viewpoint, or are you stating that non-locality is logically absurd?
That was Einstein's point of view. The idea was absurd to him. EPR (Einstein and co-authors) demonstrated that there were 2 options: admit QM entails nonlocality, or admit it is incomplete. Einstein clearly favored the latter, hence the "god does not play dice" and "is the moon there when you don't look at it" statements he made.

Nonlocality is only logically absurd if one is using classical logic, classical causation, classical determinism, and all the other things Einstein was loathe to give up. Nonlocality is now pretty much basic QM.
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
Nonlocality is only logically absurd if one is using classical logic, classical causation, classical determinism, and all the other things Einstein was loathe to give up. Nonlocality is now pretty much basic QM.

I'm with you on Einstein, but not quite sure how non-locality violates classical logic- I see how it violates our classical idea of causation- just not sure about the logic part.

And, I have no PhD in Physics, I have some friend who do, so I suppose I could ask them if you do not have the time to explain it. But, I am just not seeing it.
 

PolyHedral

Superabacus Mystic
In it, the authors argue that quantum mechanics is either incomplete, or non-local. To be clear, non-local means that a physical system in quantum mechanics can be characterized as being in two (or more) states at the same time.
...Go over that one again? I always took "non-local" to mean "involves faster than light propagation," which doesn't have anything to do with quantum superposition.
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
...Go over that one again? I always took "non-local" to mean "involves faster than light propagation," which doesn't have anything to do with quantum superposition.


Better to hear it from the experts but, methinks that an entangled state must be in superposition. And, the argument lies in whether entanglement involves and illustrates non-locality or we just assumed such, because we did not apply the right system of logic.
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
It was Einstein who framed the discussion in those terms. It doesn't mean it is correct. Bell made two assumptions: 1) realism or logic, and 2) locality. If his inequality is violated, which was proved experimentally subsequently by Aspect, it means one of those two is wrong. You have focused solely on the second assumption, but most physicists have realized that it is the first assumption, which I have mentioned at least twice: classical logic fails to describe quantum system.

1) You have no idea what you are talking about, you lied about your credentials, and I've your comments on everything from your amazon reviews to a comment on orthogonal vectors in a pre-release of a peer-reviewed journal.
2) I haven't concentrated on either assumptions Bell made, because I was responding to your various dismissive statements about "spooky action at a distance" and what Einstein said.
3) Nonlocality is a violation of classical logic. You've conflated local realism with logic vs. nonlocality. It's just local realism vs. nonlocality.

"Quantum mechanically, nonlocality arises from at least two different scenarios: One is the Aharonov-Bohm effect related to quantum potential, and the other is quantum entanglement involving the Einstein-Podolsky-Rosen type correlations and the so-called ‘‘spooky-action-at-a-distance’’. Quantum nonlocality usually refers to correlations that cannot be described by any local hidden variable theory, and has been widely studied by means of Bell’s inequalities."
Luo, S., & Fu, S. (2011). Measurement-induced nonlocality. Physical review letters, 106(12), 120401.

"John Bell showed that the correlations of the results of the measurement on entangled particles are stronger with respect to what is expected by any physical theory of local hidden variables. By measuring them, a simple inequality (i.e., the Bell inequality), based on the locality assumption, can be violated."
Pomarico, E., Bancal, J. D., Sanguinetti, B., Rochdi, A., & Gisin, N. (2011). Various quantum nonlocality tests with a commercial two-photon entanglement source. Physical Review A, 83(5), 052104.

I'm not concerned here with nuances of assumptions implicit in Bell's inequalities, because we started out with you saying spooky action at a distance is wrong and continued to mischaracterize just about the entire history of the development from the exchanges between Bohr and Einstein to EPR to Bell and finally today. Meanwhile, you've been claiming others, like me, have no clue what we're talking about and that you have a PhD and can show us how quantum mechanics demonstrates that relativity entails topological contraints no hidden parameter vector space because of inner product fast food and milkshake.

Once you accept that, then there is no need to invoke a spooky action at a distance.
Once I accept that you don't realize "spooky action at a distance" is quantum logic?

But there's no need for that, and there's no need to accept Einstein's framing the discussion. Physicists have moved on to develop QFT, QED, QCD and the Standard Model

Incredible. Explain then why I can find over 2,00 studies published in 2013 alone citing EPR.
But there are still those who are harping on this notion of spooky action at a distance, and they are wasting their time. End of story.

Yes. Because what do they know? They're phyicists. You, on the hand, are a retired teacher who writes science fiction.
 
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Curious George

Veteran Member
3) Nonlocality is a violation of classical logic. You've conflated local realism with logic vs. nonlocality.


I get that, in this discussion, I should probably be sitting with those who have their popcorn out.

But I am curious as to the classical "logic vs. non-locality" dichotomy which is set forth. If you do not have the time, I understand. But, I am curious nonetheless; and, if it isn't too much trouble perhaps you could explain here or in a PM.
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
...Go over that one again? I always took "non-local" to mean "involves faster than light propagation," which doesn't have anything to do with quantum superposition.

When did I say anything about superposition?

Buscemi, F. (2012). All entangled quantum states are nonlocal. Physical Review Letters, 108(20), 200401.

The distinctions between entangled states and superposition states is still not exactly sorted out (e.g., one can have localized entanglement). It didn't really exist at all in 1935 and neither term (entanglement and superposition) was used in EPR.
 

PolyHedral

Superabacus Mystic
Better to hear it from the experts but, methinks that an entangled state must be in superposition. And, the argument lies in whether entanglement involves and illustrates non-locality or we just assumed such, because we did not apply the right system of logic.
An entangled state must be in a superposition, yes (otherwise it wouldn't be entangled) but that doesn't directly tie into FTL signalling unless you're assuming that entanglement must involve non-local "signalling." Which I don't think is the correct way of interpreting entangled superpositions, on two grounds: it's introducing hard-to-describe elements that aren't needed, and secondly, nobody's built an ansible with it! :p
 
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