Sedim Haba
Outa here... bye-bye!
I discount ALL denominations. There are only individuals who may or may not have Ruach HaKodesh.
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Does God use a channel ?
- Thread starter Neuropteron
- Start date
Bird123
Well-Known Member
I understand why you would never make such a claim. Perhaps, I understand something you might be missing.
That's what I see. It's very clear!!
Bird123
Well-Known Member
Gives you hints?? It's all staring us all in the face. What is there to hint about??
That's what I see. It's very clear!!
Bird123
Well-Known Member
No one can guaranty the actions of another. On the other hand, I know God's system. God's actions speak to who God is and what God is doing. I'm not talking about beliefs in a book or religion. I'm talking about what actually exists and is going on around us.
I will know you are getting there when you look at this world and see a Masterpiece rather than a mess. Further, If you advance far enough in understanding, you might just get a visit from God to confirm what you have discovered. It has always been in your hands.
That's what I see. It's very clear!!
Bird123
Well-Known Member
How little do you really understand God or myself. Like God, I make no demands on your choices. I merely point to what actually is. What you choose to do with Real Truth is entirely up to you.
So much is said about God that simply isn't true. Is it really such a crime just to place the Real Truth in the world??
I am not pinning anyone down. I speak to what is. I point.
That's what I see. It's very clear!!
Neuropteron
Active Member
Hi,
"the Israelites were organised for worship. ....follow and they had standards to uphold. "
True, but the rules came from God, not men.
It was only after the Israelites insisted on a King that Jehovah gave them one after mentioning that by doing so they rejected His kingship, and that human kings would be a cause of problems for them.
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"For that reason, a christian needs some guidance and those who were set to take the lead by Jesus were instructed at Matthew 28:19 "go and make disciples...teaching them to observe all the things i have commanded you"
The instruction came from Jesus, nowhere in that text does it mention that imperfect men should add rule and policies in addition to christ' directives.
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"as further evidence, Jesus prophecy about the 'last days' says at Matthew 24:14 this good news of the kingdom will be preached in all the inhabited world and then the end will come"
I'm missing where there is "evidence" in those words that we need to be controlled by religious leaders to talk about the kingdom. On the other hand Paul points out that God's word can make us complely equipped an fully competent for every good work.
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"So in our time, there will be a group preaching the in all the world before the end comes.
this means they must be organised and well supported if they are going to be preaching in all the world. This scriptural evidence points to a channel who is very busy in this work. "
I understand your reasoning which does seem logical from a human perspective, that certainly is a reason that millions believe it, however the simple fact is that this concept is nowhere mentioned in the Greek scriptures and is not taught by Christ or the Apostles.
The word "channel" or "channeling" is not used, rather God inspired the holy writing, Christians are repeatedly told to exclusively follow it .
The point I'm trying to make is that the only guidance we need is from Jesus Christ, and that no man or group of men should be given the right to be lord over our faith.
74x12
Well-Known Member
There is still the gift of prophecy (1 Corinthians 13:2) but I wouldn't call it channeling. Channelers open themselves up to any spirit that can be conjured. It's spiritual adultery.
Prophets only operate by the holy Spirit.
Neuropteron
Active Member
Hi,
I agree,... some religion say (incorrectly) they are a channel to God.
1 Cor actually points out that prophesying is part of the development of faith (a babe) and that it would be done away with. In his letter Paul end by saying :"what remains (after prophesying abilities) is faith,hope, love, these three..."
74x12
Well-Known Member
I would take 1 Corinthians 13:12 to mean that the gift of prophecy is for this present life. After the resurrection and the so called rapture; no one will need it because they will know as they are known and they will no longer see as if in a mirror dimly. There won't be a need for prophecy anymore after that. But until then we do see as in a mirror dimly and we don't know everything so we still need prophecy.
Until then though I believe God will continue to use prophecy as he fulfills Joel 2:28 pouring out his Spirit on all flesh.
Neuropteron
Active Member
You might want to read up on the prophecy regarding the buildup to the "day of the LORD" in Joel 2:28-32. On the other hand, if you were anointed with the Spirit of God, and God knows everything, you would be like Elijah, and know everything God wants you to know.
The only "rapture" for the living will be the gathering up of the tares first, to be burned, and then the gathering of the wheat will happen (Matthew 13:30), which is to say the "great tribulation" happens first, and then "immediately after" comes the son of man (Matthew 24:29:30). Joel 2:28 is a sign of the coming "day of the LORD" and comes along with "wonders in the sky and on the earth" (Joel: 2:30), and is with respect to "those days", the "end of the age", (Joel 3:1-2), whereas Judah, the Jews, and Jerusalem are "revived".
Neuropteron
Active Member
74x12
Well-Known Member
There will be a meeting in the air which is all I can say for it. I believe when Christ returns then those who are alive and remain will be caught up to meet him in the air. This is going to in the form of greeting the returning Lord. They will go up to literally "meet" him. Then I believe they will all return to earth with Christ along with the whole army including those who died in Christ.
Quite a few assumptions which don't line up with the narrative of Yeshua. The coming of the son of man comes "immediately after the tribulation" (Matthew 24:29), the furnace of fire, which precedes the gathering the "elect from the four winds", as stated in Matthew 13:30 & 41-42, which would be the gathering of the wheat to be put into the barn. The tares, the lawless/wicked, have already been tossed into the furnace of fire (Matthew 13:41-42). It is the "tares", the wicked, who are initially "raptured"/gathered to be burned. The "elect" will be hunted down and returned to their home (Ezekiel 37 & Jeremiah 16:16-19) after they have been repaid doubly for their iniquity. The nations, the Gentiles, as in the gentile church, will confess they have been following "nothing but falsehood".
I guess that will mean you discount the Karaite / Ebionite religion? Not that it is not true in substance, but you list it as your religion, something that seems double minded, and hypocritical. And why should anyone listen to you? Are you an authority because you can write in a foreign language mixed with English?
If you had read the message of Yeshua, you would know that the field/book/NT is a mix of the message of the "enemy"/devil and the message of the son of man. (Matthew 13:25 & 37-39). It is written in parables (Matthew 13:13) so that those without eyes to see or ears to hear, will not understand. Or in the words of Daniel 12:10, the "wicked" will not understand.
Sedim Haba
Outa here... bye-bye!
Neither is an organized religion nor a denomination per se but a POV? Aspect? of Judaism & Yeshua.
Hebrew is not a 'foreign language' to me, and I refuse to use Xian terminology. Or use the term NT.
I don't know, but "Ebionite" seems more of a term inaugurated by "Christians", than the Jews/Hebrew. Not that the "Christians" have any insight or possess any truths, but I don't see it as having Jewish/Hebrew founding other than it is related to the Hebrew term for the "poor". As for Xian, it is often used, and I never knew it only had a priority connection to those who call themselves Ebionite. It apparently is used often by Satanist and Atheists (see below). I am not sure why you don't use the term NT. It apparently is term for the accumulation of the message of the enemy/devil, and the message of the son of man (Mt 13:25 & 37:39). While the term is an expropriation from Jeremiah 31:31, and although misused, it is a good example of what the "Christians" think, and therefore is not a misrepresentation of their false beliefs and can be used as a representative term. I would imagine that Hebrew is a foreign language to a large percentage who are on this platform, and therefore they do not understand what you are saying. As for keeping the Commandments, one is not to take the name of LORD the God in vain. Yeshua means YHWY saves. If no one can understand what you are saying, then using the word Yeshua seems to be breaking that Commandment, for your comments would be in vain. Just saying.
Ebionites (Greek: Ἐβιωναῖοι, Ebionaioi, derived from Hebrew אביונים ebyonim, ebionim, meaning 'the poor' or 'poor ones') as a term refers to a Jewish Christian sect who were vegetarians, viewed poverty as holy, believed in ritual ablutions, and rejected animal sacrifices.[1]
What is the meaning of Xtian?
Get a xtian mug for your dog Yasemin. abbreviated form of Christian, often used as a derogatory term by Satanists, militant Atheists, etc. It is derived from the use of X as an abbreviation for Christ, as in Xmas.
Sedim Haba
Outa here... bye-bye!
It is true that we have no texts directly from them, largely we know them from the propaganda of
Irenaeus, but it's highly unlikely that greek invented the name. In fact, it's not entirely understood
if the name refers to a vow of poverty like the Essenes, or it refers to humility, as in Matthew 5:3
While it is used sometimes disparagingly, that is an error. The term actually is common shorthand.
"What does the abbreviation 'xian' mean? Is it an insult?"
As to why I use it, as I said I won't use Xian terminology unless absolutely necessary.
The reason is simple. Jews and Xians share the same terminology, but the meanings are
rarely the same. So imagine two people speaking languages with the same words BUT
all the words don't mean the same thing to those two people? Bedlam!
Almost any Xian word you can think of, has a different meaning for a Jew than an Xian.
Because it's insulting! 'New' has been associated with Replacement Theology. Here:
Supersessionism - Wikipedia
Yehoshua 'Joshua' has a similar meaning from the same roots. That would also be a problem,
but it's obviously not. Unless someone were to pray to either man as if they were a god. I don't.
It's very possible that we don't have the same understanding of the terms 'enemy/devil'.
As I've said many times on this forum, the best way to understand HaSatan is to read Job.
(No rebellious 'fallen angel' there, an obedient servant of G-d) HaSatan is our adversary, not G-d's.
Understand, that for Jews, there are no 'fallen angels'. NO revolt is in the Tanach. None.
Now, for the 'enemy' if you understand who Jacob is wrestling with in Genesis 32:24...
you will understand who the enemy is, who the 'antichrist' is. Xians will refuse to acknowledge.
(Edit: I won't see any reply to this post until Sunday, I'm Shomer Shabbat (Sabbath observant))
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