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Featured Discussing Genesis 1&2 - The Beginning

Discussion in 'Biblical Debates' started by Seve, Mar 24, 2019.

  1. sooda

    sooda Veteran Member

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    "That's why you will not find any human litigating our Dogs directly when they bite you. " What does that mean?

    You really are out there.

    Shekhinah is the English transliteration of a Hebrew word meaning "dwelling" or "settling" the divine presence of God. This term does not occur in the Bible, and is from rabbinic literature.

    If you believe the global flood was real, you'd know that the Nephilim were wiped out and couldn't have married Noah's sons.

    The garden of Eden is a Mesopotamian myth set in ancient Dilmun on the coast of Arabia. Its much, much older than Genesis. The Hebrews learned of the story during the Babylonian exile and adapted it to create a history and identity for themselves.
     
  2. Seve

    Seve Member

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    Dear sooda,,

    I have already responded and address this same issue that you have been spouting here over-and-over again with regards to other cultural myths that your forefathers is spreading thru gossip - in trying to discredit the Scripture to .... to no avail, of course.

    Perhaps, you need somebody to help you read and understand the contexts what you are reading, seriously...I understand your predicament...

    Let me again cut-and paste for you since I know that you are too lazy to read my posts.... This time, let US both read them very SLOWLY... for better understanding and to your benefit,

    In response to sooda’ previous comment - ref. my post #23:

    **************************************************************************************************

    sooda>>>>>The flood myth is borrowed from Sumer as is the creation story. Much of Psalms is borrowed from the North Coast Canaanites. The Book of Daniel is Borrowed from an Assyrian poem that dates to 1500 BC..<<<<<

    Seve>>>>That's impossible since you seem to be a confuse person... TRY... reading the Scripture instead of listening to your ancestor's traditional gosip. For your additional learning please continue reading below....:.

    There's no Human on this Planet of Apes (Evol’s term) when Noah arrived some 10K +- years ago - but the sons of God (prehistoric mankind) whose been living here for millions of years ago before the Noah' Ark arrived. These prehistoric mankind had been created and brought forth also from the water, on this Planet, exactly as the sons of God were on Adam's Earth. Genesis 1:21 on the 5th Day.

    Today's Science confirms that EVERY living creature MUST have water to live since EVERY cell in our body would die without it. No Ancient Man could have possibly known this. Read it for yourself:

    Noah's grandsons, who were born after the Flood, had NO other Humans to marry. Like Cain, on Adam's Earth, they married and produced offspring with prehistoric people on the first Earth.

    Gen. 6:4 There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men (Heb-Adam), and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.

    The giants were giants intellectually as is shown at the end of the verse. They were the Humans of the first Earth, and they had agriculture, smelting, city building, and technology with little of NO evolution. Adam farmed with NO evolution, and Cain built a city with NO evolution, showing that Human intelligence is Superior to ANY creature made from the water.

    The fulfillment of the prophecy of "and also after that" was fulfilled when Noah brought the human intelligence of Adam to Northern Mesopotamia in the mountains of Ararat. This happened some 10k years ago and the FIRST human cities and the FIRST agriculture, and the ONLY Human civilization on our Earth, PROVES it.

    SUDDENLY, the sons of God, (prehistoric man) evolved the Human Intelligence of Adam and changed from animal to Human intelligence. Prehistoric man settled down, built houses, cities, and developed math and writing, proving that anything is possible IF you have the intelligence of the first Human, Adam. Below is the empirical record of the arrival of the first Humans on this Earth: Map: Fertile Cresent, 9000 to 4500 BCE

    Map: Fertile Cresent, 9000 to 4500 BCE.... Map of The Fertile Cresent (9000-4500 BCE)

    In less than 1% of the time since the sons of God diverged from Chimps, on this Planet, they went from Caves to the Moon and back, and yet Evolutionists seem to be totally ignorant of this Fact. Humans also inherited the ERVs of the common ancestor of Chimps BUT Humans did NOT evolve from the common ancestor, but from our own common ancestor whose name is Adam.<<<<<<<


    The entire contexts of the prohecy of "and also after that" is also shown in Gen 6:1-4 in its entirety,

    Oh well... enjoy reading and have a good day!
     
    #102 Seve, Mar 27, 2019
    Last edited: Mar 27, 2019
  3. sooda

    sooda Veteran Member

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    Cain's city is only 3500–bc. 2900 bc.. Noah was a king of Sumer 2900 BC and the flood on the Euphrates River only lasted 4 days. His barges hauling beer, grain and livestock broke loose and ended up in the Persian Gulf. Where are you plagiarizing your crackpot posts from?
     
  4. Seve

    Seve Member

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    Again, your understanding of the Scripture is FLAWED....including your allege popular dating....Scripture, Science and History do NOT agree with your ancestor;s gossips.
     
  5. sooda

    sooda Veteran Member

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    Worthy Ministries
    106 Sheffield Place
    Franklin, TN 37067-4437

    LOLOL.. I should have known.
     
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  6. sooda

    sooda Veteran Member

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    I don't know what ancestors you are talking about. Are you making money with your crap?

    Worthy Ministries
    106 Sheffield Place
    Franklin, TN 37067-4437
     
  7. The Anointed

    The Anointed Well-Known Member

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    The Torah was housed in the temple of Solomon, which stood for 470 years 6 months and ten days, before it was sacked and burned by the forces of the Babylonian King Nebuchadnezzar. But what would one, who does not have the ability to comprehend that which they read, know.

    Nephilim - Wikipedia.

    In his last testament, Reuben, the first born son of Jacob who was renamed Israel, states that those Sons of God [The shining ones] could not take on human form, but they would possess the bodies of the men while they were with their wives and from there were able to pass on their issue and giants were born of those unions, and according to Jewish culture, Noah was born a Giant.

    From the ‘Book of Enoch the Prophet’ CVI: 1-6, “Methuselah took a wife for his son Lamech, and she became pregnant by him and bore a son. And his body was as white as snow and as red as the blooming of a rose and the hair on his head and his long locks were white as wool, and his eyes beautiful. And when he opened his eyes, he lighted up the whole house like the sun, and the whole house was very bright. And thereupon he arose in the hands of the midwife, opened his mouth, and conversed with the Lord of righteousness. And his father Lamech was afraid of him, and Lamech fled and ran to his father Methuselah. And he said to him: “I have begotten a strange son, diverse from and unlike man, and resembling the sons of the God of heaven; and his nature is different, and he is not like us, and his eyes are as the rays of the sun, and his countenance is glorious. And it seems that he is not sprung from me, but from the angels. And I fear that in his days, a wonder may be wrought on the earth.

    Who was the spiritual being, who possessed the body of Lamech while he was with his wife? Who was the Lord of righteousness with whom the new born Noah conversed? And how was the spiritual Jesus, who descended through time to preach the Good News to the disobedient in Noah's day, able to converse with those who were disobedient in those days? Was Jesus reborn as the alpha to a new age of man in order to evolve on the righteous spirits of Man, to become the Omega?

    The sons of Noah and their wives were all descendants of Enoch's six sons, Methusulah, Rigam, Riman, Urchan, Cherminion, and Giadad.
     
  8. Seve

    Seve Member

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    Based on the Holy Scripture:

    Genesis 1:21 tells us that EVERY living creature that moveth was created from the water on Day 5. Science finally agrees, all living creatures/species including the sons of God (prehistoric mankind) originated from the water.

    Genesis 2 tells us of Creatures made from the dust. Some people see this as a contradiction, and falsely assume that God made a boo boo.

    They are ignorant of the fact that God, CREATED and brought forth every Living Creature that moved from the water on Day 5. The account of the formation of the beasts of the field and fowl of the air, from the Dust, on the 6th Day, is when YHWH (the Son) squeezed, as a potter would mold clay, and Formed living creatures from the dust of the ground. The creatures made from the dust were identical to those brought forth from the water, and could produce offspring together. (Gen 6:1-4)

    The first Living Being made from the dust was man. Man was physically MADE from the dust of the ground on the 3rd Day before the plants and herbs, right after the mist that watered the whole face of the ground. Gen 2:4-7 This gives mankind Preeminence or First Place among all other Living Creatures.

    Like the animals made from the dust, Man also married and produced children with Beings brought forth from the water (prehistoric mankind). That's where Cain's wife came from, and that is who Noah's grandsons married, on this present Planet... after their world was completely destroyed by the flood and brought to this present world of ours together with the Ark ... This event took place some 11K years ago. Human Civilization was born.

    We have the DNA of the sons of God"(Prehistoric Mankind) and we also have the Human Intelligence that can ONLY be inherited from Adam, the first Human. Yes, we all descended with modifications from a common ancestor and his name is Adam.

    God created every living creature that moveth, from the water, on the 5th Day, and YHWH (the Son), produced Their/His Kind*from the dust of the ground on the 6th Day.

    This means that we are ALL confined to our own Kinds (Flesh) in order to be able to reproduce offspring. Anything else is based on wild imagination of men.

    OUR GOD IS AN AWESOME GOD!
     
    #108 Seve, Mar 27, 2019
    Last edited: Mar 27, 2019
  9. URAVIP2ME

    URAVIP2ME Veteran Member

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    The LORD (in All capital letters KJV) is LORD God Jehovah in English from the Hebrew YHWH Tetragrammaton.
    The Lord (in some lower-case letters KJV at Psalms 110) is Lord Jesus. Tetragrammaton never applied to Jesus.
    There is only One OT archangel who is first named as being Michael by Daniel.
    The NT Lord Jesus (lower-case letters) has the 'voice of the archangel' according to 1 Thessalonians 4:16.
    Thus, the only OT name directly associated with the word ' archangel ' is: Michael - Jude 1:9
    Since NT Lord Jesus has the OT archangel's voice, then yes the biblical stand is that pre-human Jesus is: Michael.
     
  10. sooda

    sooda Veteran Member

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    Where does Isaiah 17 mention Jesus?
     
  11. Seve

    Seve Member

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    Dear URAVIP2ME,

    Following your Religious Doctrinal Teaching above (see highlighted quotes) could you please explain to us why the Scripture below, seemingly, does NOT agree with your Doctrinal assumption of the same???

    Isa 43:10 Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD (YHWH), and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.

    IF we follow what you're saying above, then, our subject "LORD" (in all upper case lettes) above - Isa 43:10 could NOT have been the invisible Almighty God Father, since you also agree that ... NO man hath seen God at anytime - Jnh 1:18...

    According to the above verse Isa 43:10 The LORD (YHWH) was physically formed for us to see and witness! Before him there was no God formed, neither, there will be another God formed after him. Do you agree?

    Correct me if I am wrong....
    In order to be a witness, a person must see the Subject Matter with his own eyes - first hand.... correct?

    [Jhn 1:18 KJV] 18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him

    Just asking, thanks.
     
  12. sooda

    sooda Veteran Member

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    Not necessarily.

    Witness: public affirmation by word or example of usually religious faith or conviction.
     
  13. Seve

    Seve Member

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    The context of the cited text is about YHWH being Made to have PHYSICAL FORM - the only God to be seen and witnessed in physical form by his chosen people.

    Therefore, YHWH could NOT have been the INVISIBLE God Father, but the Son himself, the Christ..

    PS. I told you to get somebody to help you read and understand the Scripture. It will only help you gain good reputation.
     
  14. URAVIP2ME

    URAVIP2ME Veteran Member

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  15. sooda

    sooda Veteran Member

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    Does your internet ministries work in Franklin? Pretty outrageous.

    They were his witnesses, because, first, he had given in them predictions of future events which had been literally fulfilled: secondly, by his power of delivering them so often manifested, he had shown that he was a God able to save. Neither of these had been done by the idol-gods (compare Isaiah 44:8).
     
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  16. URAVIP2ME

    URAVIP2ME Veteran Member

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    I find that God can Not be seen by any man according to Exodus 33:20; John 1:18; John 6:46; 1 John 4:12
     
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  17. sooda

    sooda Veteran Member

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    Damascus, the capital city of Syria and the oldest continuously inhabited city on the planet..
     
  18. Seve

    Seve Member

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    [Quote =URAVIP2ME] >>>>No, the Tetragrammaton is never in connection to Jesus.
    Jesus is the ' Lord ' (in some lower-case letters) of KJV
    Psalms 110, whereas the 'LORD' (in all Upper-Case letters) is where the Tetragrammaton YHWH stands.


    Sure, the name of the pre-human heavenly Jesus is revealed at this time as found at 1 Thessalonians 4:16 because Jesus has the voice of the ' archangel ', and the archangel's name is Michael.- Daniel 12; Revelation 12:7-9,12<<<<<[/quote]

    ************************************************************************************************

    Then, again, please to explain the outstanding issue that I brought forth that you have NOT yet responded to... see below.... Thanks

    BUMP: 2nd Request...

    Following your Religious Doctrinal Teaching above (see above highlighted quotes) could you please explain to us why the Scripture below, seemingly, does NOT agree with your Doctrinal assumption of the same???

    Isa 43:10 Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD (YHWH), and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.

    IF we follow what you're saying above, then, our subject "LORD" (in all upper case lettes) Isa 43:10 .... above - YHWH could NOT have been the invisible Almighty God Father, since, you also agree that ... NO man hath seen God at anytime - Jhn 1:18...

    According to the above verse Isa 43:10 The LORD (YHWH) speaking directly to his chosen people - in the Old Testament - proclaiming... He was physically formed for us to see and witness! Before him there was no God formed, neither, there will be another God formed after him. Do you agree?

    Also, correct me if I am wrong.... In order to be a witness, a person must see the Subject / Person or Matter with his own eyes first hand.... correct?

    [Jhn 1:18 KJV] 18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him

    Thanks
     
    #118 Seve, Mar 28, 2019
    Last edited: Mar 28, 2019
  19. shunyadragon

    shunyadragon Veteran Member
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    A more consistent understanding of the Hebrew scripture in the original context, instead of the Roman context would help you possibly 'gain your good reputation.'
     
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  20. metis

    metis aged ecumenical anthropologist

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    Or as a early Jewish narrative to counter the earlier polytheistic Babylonian narrative. Some Hebrew scholars tell us that the 1:1 narrative may well be poetic, and it is believed that sometimes this was done to enhance memory as that narrative may well have been carried orally for decades or even longer before being put to writing.

    Either way, I agree with you in that taking it at the literal level simply doesn't make sense.


    BTW, I'm late to the "party" as I've been very busy with "spring cleanup", and I'm very disappointed that you and others here haven't shown up to help. :(
     
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