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Did the Disciples Eat Jesus?

Jesus said, "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you,"

I believe they followed his command.

What do you think?
 

lovesong

:D
Premium Member
I thought they just ate the bread that was supposed to represent his body. Would actually eating him be considered cannibalism, since he's supposed to be a god, so not really human? What about eating a different god, like say, Anubis, who is only half human? Either way, eating god flesh seems a little creepy.
 

Twilight Hue

Twilight, not bright nor dark, good nor bad.
Jesus said, "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you,"

I believe they followed his command.

What do you think?
I see a cult horror classic in there somewhere.
 

psychoslice

Veteran Member
Of course they didn't, it was simply a ritual with metaphoric meaning, I just cannot understand how some people take the bible so literally, its ridiculous really.
 
There is written evidence that the disciples obeyed Jesus: "I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live ; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me." (Galations 2:20)

You understand that Jesus did not die on the cross, correct? It is what happened when he was taken off the cross that lead to the disciples "act" of eating his flesh and drinking his blood as he commanded.

John 6:53 -
Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you.

On a re-read of that verse, two important things he said there stand out for me. The first to catch my eye was "son of man" and the next was "Verily, verily."

1. "Son of man" is who he referred to himself as ~ not son of god, ever. HE knew who he was.

2. When the man called Jesus said anywhere, "Verily" it meant "Truly." It meant that he was about to say something important. When, however, you see "Verily, verily," whatever came behind that was to be paid undivided attention to. A modern-day translation of "Verily, verily" might be something like, "Listen up for your own good, I kid you not, or you may face consequences..." Whatever followed "Verily, verily" was sure to be seriously profound and taken literally.

John 6:54 - Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.<p> </p>55 For my flesh is meat indeed, and my blood is drink indeed.<p> </p>56 He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, dwelleth in me, and I in him.

Bear in mind that he issued that command before the Passover feast known as "the last supper" - way before.

You should be aware that in the verses prior to that, he had been addressing the crowd in parable mode, but then, you see he cut to the chase and made himself verily, verily crystal clear.

Again, what strikes me is that he said all that BEFORE the Passover observance commonly referred to as the "last supper." Long before. Of how much time elapsed between the two events, I am uncertain. The Passover incident was merely a reminder and a full practice-run for the disciples of what they were expected by him to do: eat his flesh and drink his blood.

So, it is obvious that he concisely made himself perfectly clear and we do especially get this point when we continue in our reading...:

John 6:60 - Many therefore of his disciples, when they had heard this, said, This is a hard saying; who can hear it?
Verse 61 - When Jesus knew in himself that his disciples murmured at it, he said unto them, Doth this offend you?

Well yes, wouldn't *you* be offended at first if you were just informed that you were required to eat your loved one and drink their blood?

62 What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

63 It is the Spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.

Note that there, again, he referred to himself as the son of man (not son of god). That portion of the 6th chapter of john contains popularly misinterpreted text that clearly requires no special interpretation in the first place. Here is what I mean: "What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?" The question is obviously referring to his predetermined plan to appear to the disciples in astral form, which I can give a little more detail about - "It is the Spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life." Jesus understood the mechanics of the Human body and it is obvious that he he knew the process involved in deliberate Out Of Body Experiences

John 6:64 - But there are some of you that believe not. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him.

65 And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father.

66 From that time many of his disciples went back, and walked no more with him.

67 Then said Jesus unto the twelve, Will ye also go away?

It now lines up and makes sense when you see clearly how this piece fits into the age-old puzzle. After coming to understand that in order to receive what the man called Jesus had to offer, they would have to first eat his flesh and drink his blood, many *would* opt out of that plan, leave and stop following him. It weeded out the superficial and thin-skinned disciples from his die-hard friends-to-the-end, as it is written that after he said that, the number of disciples he wound up talking to had diminished to 12 when he started with "many" (hundreds). It was those remaining ones who sacrificed him, ate his flesh, drank his blood and "acted with power" when the pentecost occurred, who indeed are as alive today as he is through biblical text of the new testament and who will live as long as those texts are referenced by the masses.
vERSE 68 - Then Simon Peter answered him, Lord, to whom shall we go? thou hast the words of eternal life.

69 And we believe and are sure that thou art that Christ, the Son of the living God.

PETER proclaimed that the people thought he was the son of god, even though the man called jesus never said that, only referring to himself ever as the son of MAN, and if you observe carefully, you will note it was always only PETER who piped up calling him the son of god.

So yes, Jesus laid down his life for his friends. He laid it down on an alter, as was the Jewish traditionh of the sacrificial offering.
 
Initially, Joseph of Aramathea put jesus in the tomb alone (by himself) and then they(Nicodemus and whomever accompanied him) moved him that NIGHT to a tomb more convenient to get to. I like John's version of the tale of jesus, because john gave most important details that the other 3 (Mark, Matthew and Luke) fail to mention.

John 19:38-42: "And after this Joseph of Arimathaea, being a disciple of Jesus, but secretly for fear of the Jews, besought Pilate that he might take away the body of Jesus: and Pilate gave him leave. He came therefore, and took the body of Jesus. And there came also Nicodemus, which at the first came to Jesus by night, and brought a mixture of myrrh and aloes, about an hundred pound weight. Then took they the body of Jesus, and wound it in linen clothes with the spices, as the manner of the Jews is to bury. Now in the place where he was crucified there was a garden; and in the garden a new sepulchre, wherein was never man yet laid. There laid they Jesus therefore because of the Jews' preparation day; for the sepulchre was nigh at hand."

But pause right there - Myrrh and aloes are used for healing, yes? You don't bring 100 POUNDS of this healing concoction for a dead man. He was in there alive, wounded, but alive.

It appears from John's story that it was Nicodemus and "them" who moved jesus to another location closer to them where they treated him for healing.

Who knows - it could be that Jesus himself moved the stone away. It had come to mind that he indicated a great confidence in his own abilities by telling his disciples in Mark 11:22-23,"...Have faith in God. For verily I say unto you, That whosoever shall say unto this mountain, Be thou removed, and be thou cast into the sea; and shall not doubt in his heart, but shall believe that those things which he saith shall come to pass; he shall have whatsoever he saith."

So if he was able to move mountains in such a way, then moving one stone would have been like child's play for him. Alternatively, an other thought that occurred to me was that maybe he had been in the tomb moaning, groaning and hollering out loud in agony from the pains in his body, and the man (or two men) heard the noise jesus was making in the tomb so they rolled the stone away, then jesus may have instructed them on what to say to Mary Magdalene and the women when they arrived on the first day of the week after the sabbath, when they came to annoint him again and rewrap his body.

What we do know is that when he was done with being in a tomb he visited his friends, ALIVE.
 

Kapalika

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
So wait, at what point was he literally eaten?

I just assumed everything said after he "rose" wasn't true in this idea. But maybe I misunderstood.
 
In biblical scripture, when you read that someone "rose" it means that they woke up or otherwise got up, however mainstream teachings lead the masses to believe that when "arose" refers to Jesus it means something different - ascending, but it means for Jesus what it meant for everyone else in the bible who ever rose - he got up.

For instance, in the story Luke told (24:1-46) in verse 12 it reads: "Then arose Peter, and ran unto the sepulchre; and stooping down, he beheld the linen clothes laid by themselves, and departed, wondering in himself at that which was come to pass."

Do you understnad that to mean that because it states that Peter arose, that that means Peter ascended into the sky too? No. So, arose just means he got up.
 
So the question now becomes, "When did the disciples eat Jesus?" When did he lay down his life for his friends? When did he sacrifice his life?

I believe that it likely occurred on the day of the recorded pentecostal experience when the disciples (initially and specifically PETER, John and Stephen) began "acting with power."
 

Aiviu

Active Member
What is it meaning to take Communion then? Or Sacrament, eucharist, however the ceremony is named?
To remember.

So the question now becomes, "When did the disciples eat Jesus?" When did he lay down his life for his friends? When did he sacrifice his life?

I believe that it likely occurred on the day of the recorded pentecostal experience when the disciples (initially and specifically PETER, John and Stephen) began "acting with power."
Is it so important?
 

wizanda

One Accepts All Religious Texts
Premium Member
i dont understand how it has something to do with it. Was there a bible (OT) bashing contest back then?
Not really following what you're asking.... The gospel of John is made up to put the Jews off, and allow workers of iniquity to accept it, so the things within it often defile Jewish law on purpose, to see who is paying attention. :innocent:
 

Aiviu

Active Member
Not really following what you're asking.... The gospel of John is made up to put the Jews off, and allow workers of iniquity to accept it, so the things within it often defile Jewish law on purpose, to see who is paying attention. :innocent:

How this line is made to be accepted by workers of iniquity?

Ummm... or why he should defile the Jewish law?
 

wizanda

One Accepts All Religious Texts
Premium Member
How this line is made to be accepted by workers of iniquity?
Because someone who is so desperate to have jesus as their free golden ticket into Heaven, doesn't read the small print; that drinking the blood of an offering, or drinking the blood of a man, is a defilement of the law, that will lead to people being cut off from God.
Ummm... or why he should defile the Jewish law?
The gospel of John is made up, it isn't the words or teachings of Yeshua, sounds nothing like him within the Synoptic Gospels, and is defamation of character. :innocent:
 

Aiviu

Active Member
Because someone who is so desperate to have jesus as their free golden ticket into Heaven, doesn't read the small print; that drinking the blood of an offering, or drinking the blood of a man, is a defilement of the law, that will lead to people being cut off from God.

Its not to have jesus for a ticket. Its to have trust that God is truth. That he evidence the God of the jews. I merely come to think that it was pretentious in the eyes of the jews.Or not?

I read no defilement as i imagine jesus no to be like that. So if john wrote it that way i guess he put personal defilement in it.
 
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