Again I like to state my simple logic of the three properties that cannot coexist at the same time and still make logical sense:
If God is defined as
omniscience,
omnipotent,
omnibenevalent, all at the same time from beginning to eternity, the whole episode of sending his only begotten Son to die [a very non omnibenevalent act on his son] for the sin of human being he created imperfect in the first place (let us forget about the free will arguement, as a
perfect human being even given the free will, is impossible to be tempted and go against God, some one that can be tempted to do wrong thing is not perfect) is simply beyong the current logic of human brain, if you do not have the part of the brain that can response to the thing known as
faith.
Hence, for all non-theist, the best explanation is that all these are just the mysterious way God has acted and directed. To argue in details will be splitting hair, and argue for the shake of arguing.
Some even suggested that when Jesus was on earth, he was not exactly equal to God (Would Satan attempt to tempt God? He must have known that Jesus in the human form may not be as powerful or all knowing like before or like God the Father up in the heaven (or omnipotent/omniscience). Hence Satan thought it is worth trying) during that stage of his existence, so that he can really experience body (physical cruxification) and mental (the feeling that has been forshaken by the Father) suffering. We have to presume that God the father or God the Holy Ghost cannot suffer or do not know suffering per se, and only God the Son, after assuming the human form for the brief 30 odd years on earth can.
If we factor in the imposition of 'free will', then not even God who knows the future (omniscience) will know who will choose what (to accept or not to accept Jesus) until he exercised his choice. Therefore in a way, when Jesus died on the cross, he has no foreknowledge that his suffering will save human race or not. He may not even know God the father will re-surrect him or not, there fore the famous 'Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani". This proves that Jesus has to suffer immense mental torture.
Since Jesus did not know what is going to happen to him as we can deduce from Mark 15:34, we may conclude that he did suffer. Therefore during his lifespan on earth, Jesus is NOT omniscience, omnipotent, and omnibenevalent. Hence he has to pray to God, since he is not sure what is going to happen next, and he needed the prayer to work for him. He has temper, when he got angry in the temple etc. So I presume during his life time on earth, he has transformed from his previous self (as Catholic claimed that Jesus coexisted with God the Father from the beginning), and only have some vague idea of what he previously was before he enter the womb of Mary via the work of the holy spirit. However he has to remain sin-free throughout his whole life on earth, and I am not sure whether he has free will during that time, or he was born with a perfect brain that will not let him err and commit any sin, or the holy spirit was with him all the time to guide him and ensure that he did no sin. So during the time he was being cruxified on the cross, he was 'human', and suffered.
Does all these make sense, or am I talking nonsense?