Does anyone agree with Shiranui117's statement below?
Shiranui117 said:
Actually, it wouldn't. Just because you have a first child doesn't mean you have a second child. "Firstborn" means just that: The first. It doesn't necessitate that other children were after Jesus. It just means that none were before Him.
Is Shiranui117 correct?
Does "her firstborn son" mean that Mary didn't have other son(s)?
If Jesus had other siblings, then why would He entrust Mary to John, who wasn't even related to Jesus? Wouldn't Jesus put Mary into the care of one of her own children, if she had any?
John 19:25 Now there stood by the cross of Jesus His mother, and His mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene. 26 When Jesus therefore saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing by, He said to His mother, “Woman, behold your son!” 27 Then He said to the disciple, “Behold your mother!” And from that hour that disciple took her to his own home.
I have seen this argument before.
There are several problems I have with this version of the event.
It is the only one (gospel of John) that mentioned the disciple taking Mary in. None of the other gospels say anything about Mary and this unnamed disciple.
John wrote several other things that conflict with Mark and Matthew (for instance, the supper at Bethany, where a woman anointed Jesus with perfume and her tears; Mark and Matthew say his head was anointed, John says feet; and different host (Simon the Leper and Lazarus) was given). I don't trust John's version of certain event.
Several times, Mary was mentioned with Jesus' brothers (Mark 3:31-35; Mark 6:3, Matthew 13:55-56). I know that some Christians have reasoned that these brothers (and sisters) were either half siblings and even cousins, but none of these gospels say anything about they were Jesus' half brothers. That Luke state that Jesus was Mary's firstborn son, seemed to indicate that Jesus was the eldest of her children.
Luke 2:7 stated quite clearly "her firstborn son", which to me, make sense that Jesus wasn't Mary's only son. It say "her", not "his" or "Joseph's". The whole Mary being a perpetual virgin or remaining a virgin, after Jesus' birth, is a myth perpetuated first by 4th century Roman church propaganda (the root of East and West Roman church).
I agreed with Outhouse's posts, that a typical Jewish family in the past were usually large, because of the infant mortality rate were quite high.