Do you mean "Ashur" as I quoted the scripture? Ashur is another word for Assyria.
Ashur, or Assyria, in any case it may means something else than what modern people think.
If the water was "in one place" then why would he use the plural "Seas" to describe it. Nope I can readily see the "Seas" containing many bodies of water, all separated by various islands, large land masses, or continents. And this single continent you speak of, you are aware, are you not, that it, Pangaea, existed until some 300 million years ago?
Even if there was just one water, it could have had different areas that were called seas. Similarly as it also nowadays, we basically have one ocean that has many seas that are connected to others. More important in this case is that according to the Bible, there was one area of dry land.
And about 300 million years, I have no good reason to believe it.
Do you honestly believe that's how the writer identified it, as writing that happened "2,200 years before Jesus"?
By what I know, only thing that indicates it is 2200 years before Jesus is that it claims to be so. There is nothing to support the idea.
As I said it doesn't matter why or who is responsible for the error, or where, the fact is, it exists. The Bible does contradicts itself, which is the only issue under consideration, as you asked.
I can accept only that some translations are not as accurate as they should be. It doesn’t mean the oldest are wrong or contradictory. And I think you have not really managed to show any contradiction, because in all examples you gave, the older versions don’t have the problem. But thank you anyway for your effort. You were better than many enemies of truth.