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SOGFPP said:If Jesus was fully human, and you say that ALL humans sin..... did Jesus sin? If not, how is this possible for him, but not his mother?
Prayer intercession for Catholics is not praying to, but rather praying with. It's like when a friend tells me their Uncle just had a heart attack, would I please pray for him. Catholics call this a communion of prayer. As I asked my 3rd-graders, do you think this would make God happy, sad or indifferent to hear all those prayers at once? Catholics include Mary in that communion, just as my friend included me in praying for his Uncle.I have heard ministers preach regarding Mary, however, being non-catholic, we dont pray to her, as I believe there is only one mediator between God and man, and that is Jesus.
SOGFPP said:Hello there, my fellow Christians!
How does Mary, the mother of our Lord Jesus, factor into your religious life?
I recently had a discussion with a Baptist preacher who, after some thought, realized that in 22 years of preaching he never discussed Mary outside the context of Christ's birth...... and it got him to wonder "why?".
This is not intended to be a discussion about the intersession of Mary, or prayers to saints in general, but a question about her fiat and her role (if any) in the life of non-Catholic Christians.
Thanks for your contributions!
Yours in Christ,
Scott
It troubles me a bit that this was not proclaimed as dogma until 1854. I really don't have any problem with the IC as a pious opinion, but am not sure why it needs to be a point of dogma (of course, I'm leery of Vatican I to begin with...).SOGFPP said:Hirohito,
From the Catechism of the Catholic Church:
The Immaculate Conception
490 To become the mother of the Savior, Mary "was enriched by God with gifts appropriate to such a role."132 The angel Gabriel at the moment of the annunciation salutes her as "full of grace".133 In fact, in order for Mary to be able to give the free assent of her faith to the announcement of her vocation, it was necessary that she be wholly borne by God's grace.
Do you believe that Romans 3.23 applies to all human beings without exception? Does it apply to infants? Does it apply to Jesus?writer said:<She was Immaculately Conceived.>
Too the contrary: she was an experiential and condemned sinner just like the rest of us (Rom 3:23)
Victor said:Genna, why would Mary having a saviour negate her sinlessness?
God can save people before they are born. That still makes Christ their saviour.
Genna said:Why would Mary need "saving" even if before she was born if she was sinless? people are "saved" from their "sins"!
Genna said:So essentially I can be sinless as of now if God were to bestow His grace upon me?
And if so, how do you reconcile that idea with this verse:
1 John 1:8 - If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.