There are verses which seem to imply salvation is open to all..
I don't think they do when interpreted in context. Consider...
He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.
1 john 2:2
Firstly, what is an "atoning sacrifice"? What does it
mean to propitiate something? It means to turn the wrath of God away. If Christ has actually acted as a
propitiation for the sins of the whole world, then no one can go to hell, because the penalty of all sins (including unbelief) have been satisfied, period. To say that Christ is the
propitiation or
atoning sacrifice for the sins of the whole world is a completely different thing than saying that Christ's atonement
makes a way of salvation possible for the whole world. To propitiate for one's sins means it's all done; the wrath of God has been turned away and He will no longer look on that sinner with a need to cast judgment. To say, on the other hand, that Christ's atonement simply made a way of salvation possible, is not to say that everyone's sins have actually been propitiated for already, but only that he has offered them the opportunity for their sins to be propitiated. That's not the same thing. So the only way you can understand this verse is either as teaching universalism, or we must understand the "whole world" in a different sense. I like what Murray says on this text. He writes:
"We can find several reasons why John should have said 'for the whole world' without in the least implying that his intent was to teach what the proponents of universal atonement allege. There is good reason why John should have said 'for the whole world' quite apart from the assumption of universal atonement.
1. It was necessary for John to set forth the
scope of Jesus' propitiation--it was not limited in its virtue and efficacy to the immediate circle of disciples who had actually seen and heard and handled the Lord in the days of his sojourn upon earth (
see I John 1:1-3), nor to the circle of believers who came directly under the influence of the apostolic witness (
see I John 1:3, 4). The propitiation which Jesus himself is extends in its virtue, efficacy, and intent to all in every nation who through the apostolic witness came to have fellowship with the Father and the Son (
see I John 1:5-7). Every nation and kindred and people and tongue is in this sense embraced in the propitiation. It was highly necessary that John . . . should stress the ethnic universalism of the gospel . . .
2. It was necessary for John to emphasize the
exclusiveness of Jesus as the propitiation. It is this propitiation that is the one and only specific for the remission of sin. [In other words, when we read texts that speak of Jesus as "the Savior of the world," the sense is that he alone is "the world's Savior." In other words, there is no Savior in the world but Him. John 1:29 would fall into this category as well.]
3. It was necessary for John to remind his readers of the
perpetuity of Jesus' propitiation. It is this propitiation that endures as such through all ages. . . .
Hence the
scope, the
exclusiveness, and the
perpetuity of the propitiation provided sufficient reason for John to say, "not for ours only but also for the whole world." And we need not suppose that John was here enunciating a doctrine of propitiation that is distributively universal in its extent."
- Murray,
Redemption--Accomplished and Applied, 73-74
2 peter 3:9
The Lord is not slow to fulfill his promise as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance."
This text is simply a contextual issue. If we allow for it to be read in context, it can't be understood to be making a universal reference. Peter makes a distinction between two groups of people in the context. The "beloved," and "them," who were the mockers/scoffers. Look at verses 1-8. He is addressing the "beloved," Christians, contrasting them from "them," the scoffers. And then he says, "The Lord is patient with
you [hymas]," referring to the Christians he is addressing. So think about what he's saying here. He's talking to Christians, telling them not to be discouraged by the fact that there are scoffers who are mocking the fact that Christ seems to be delayed in His return. So what he does to encourage them is he gives them the reason why Christ's return appears to be delayed -- He is being patient, not wanting "any" to perish but "all" to come to repentance.
But does this "any" and "all" refer to all of humanity? No, in fact it can't. It would make no sense in the context. "Any" [tinas] and "all" [pantas] are simply reference words. They always rely on the context in which they are used for their reference to be defined. If we simply read the text and automatically assume that "any" and "all"
must mean every single human being that ever lived, we are
imposing a context onto these words that the text may not necessarily intend. And given the context of the present passage, it is the case that a universal reference is
not what is intended.
Consider it carefully. What is the
reason why Christ's return appears to be delayed? Peter says the reason is that He is being patient. And that patience is cited as the result of His desire for men to be saved. However, who is the
object of that patience? Peter says that Christ is being patient
toward you, that is, the beloved. So, given this context, how would you make sense of the claim that the "any" and "all" are universal references? Peter limits the audience to which these descriptives refer as a specific group, in contrast to another specific group. In other words, he is saying "any [and] all
of you," in contrast to the rest, "them." It would make no sense for Peter to make this distinction and then make a universal statement. If his statement here is intended to give courage to the Christians, by telling them that Christ is being patient
toward them, then why would it make sense, in that context, for Peter to them say that He desires every person, both the beloved, and the scoffers, to be saved? Christ's patience isn't
for the scoffers. It's for the beloved. And that patience is the
result of His desire to save. Hence, if the patience is only for some, so is the desire only for some, and the "any" and "all" are limited by the context to refer to the "you." It makes no sense to say that Christ desires for every single person in the world to be saved, if He is only being patient toward the beloved, in contrast with the scoffers.
And this makes sense, if you think about it. Consider, what if Christ came back tomorrow? If He did, and if we understand 2 Peter 3:9 to have a universal reference, then couldn't the argument be made that if Christ had just waited one more day, He could have saved even more? After all, if we understand 2 Peter 3:9 to have a universal reference, then we must believe that Christ wants to save as many as possible. But if that is the case, then why come back at all? Why not just continue to allow time to progress on and on so that more and more people would come to Him? What if Christ had come back 100 years ago, so that you and I never existed?
I think a much more consistent way to understand the text is that His patience is for the elect, because He does not wish any [of the elect] to perish, but for all [of the elect] to come to repentance. Hence, the reason why He has yet to return is not because He is just hoping to save "as many as possible," but because He is waiting for the full number of the elect to be brought into existence. And once that last member of the elect comes into existence and turns to Christ by faith, Christ's patience will be complete, and He will return, bringing the end.
