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Brit Milah's Tautological Significance.

John D. Brey

Well-Known Member
Beware of dogs, beware of evil workers, beware of the mutilators of flesh. For we are the circumcision, we who worship God in the spirit, and rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh.

Philippians 3:2-3.​

These are some weighty words from a runaway rabbi. Saul's no stranger to brit milah
(ritual circumcision). And since his letter to the Philippians is canonical in Christian quarters, it's more than fair to point out that brit milah is thus at the very foot of, the foundational soil from, whence Christianity, like Judaism, sprouts. That being the case, and Saul-the-Jew being none other than Paul-the-convert, we should like to know if Philippians 3:2-3, is merely Paul throwing Saul to the dogs, in which case we should probably beware, or else whether there's a Jewish spirit in the outworking of Paul throwing out such loaded canonical verbiage?




John
 
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John D. Brey

Well-Known Member
Beware of dogs, beware of evil workers, beware of the mutilators of flesh. For we are the circumcision, we who worship God in the spirit, and rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh.

Philippians 3:2-3.​

These are some weighty words from a runaway rabbi. Saul's no stranger to brit milah (ritual circumcision). And since his letter to the Philippians is canonical in Christian quarters, it's more than fair to point out that brit milah is thus at the very foot of, the foundational soil from, whence Christianity, like Judaism, sprouts. That being the case, and Saul the Jew being none other than Paul the convert, we should like to know if Philippians 3:2-3, is merely Paul throwing Saul to the dogs, in which case we should probably beware, or else whether there's a Jewish spirit in the outworking of Paul throwing out such loaded canonical verbiage?

As was shown in the thread exegeting Colossians 1:18, Paul's theological genius is so expansive that he rarely worries about filling in the blanks concerning his brachylogical outbursts. He seems to figure his readers will have thousands of years, and advanced technological equipment, with which to fill in the blanks that bracket his logic, such that he busies himself not with the progressive contextual nuances necessary to get to his idea, but with the meat and potatoes ideas able to change theology and thus the world.

Even more than Colossians 1:18, Philippians 3:2-3 is world-changing, earth-shattering, theology. So it's well-worth doing the leg-work required to fill in the blanks on Paul's theology transforming verbiage so that Jews and Christians throughout the world get a foretaste of the Judeo/Christian theology of the Kingdom Age.



John
 
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Lain

Well-Known Member
Beware of dogs, beware of evil workers, beware of the mutilators of flesh. For we are the circumcision, we who worship God in the spirit, and rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh.

Philippians 3:2-3.​

These are some weighty words from a runaway rabbi. Saul's no stranger to brit milah
(ritual circumcision). And since his letter to the Philippians is canonical in Christian quarters, it's more than fair to point out that brit milah is thus at the very foot of, the foundational soil from, whence Christianity, like Judaism, sprouts. That being the case, and Saul-the-Jew being none other than Paul-the-convert, we should like to know if Philippians 3:2-3, is merely Paul throwing Saul to the dogs, in which case we should probably beware, or else whether there's a Jewish spirit in the outworking of Paul throwing out such loaded canonical verbiage?




John

It seems to me that he is warning Christians not to Judaize or be tempted by the Judaizers or religious Jews, for the only thing which counts with God is faith working through love. What do you see in it?
 

John D. Brey

Well-Known Member
Even more than Colossians 1:18, Philippians 3:2-3 is world-changing, earth-shattering, theology. So it's well-worth doing the leg-work required to fill in the blanks on Paul's theology transforming verbiage so that Jews and Christians throughout the world get a foretaste of the Judeo/Christian theology of the Kingdom Age.

The title of the thread speaks of brit milah's tautological significance. And it's that particular significance that brackets Paul's brachylogical outburst in Philippians 3:2-3. As a Hebrew exegete, speaking to Hebrew illiterates (for the most part), Paul has to transform the Hebrew element of what he's saying into the Greek of his writing and his audience. He transforms two Hebrew words that are seminal to his thought (מול and מלל), into Greek (κατατομην and περιτομη), or else he does this subconsciously on the fly, which would be even more astounding.

The two Hebrew words are found in Genesis 17:10-11. The first מול, is used to speak of "circumcision" (it's the root-word for "milah" מליה). The second מלל, speaks of "cutting the flesh." ------In proper exegesis of Genesis 17:10-11, God says that every male member of Abraham's covenant offspring will be "circumcised" מול, while in order to guard and proclaim the significance of Abraham's covenant offspring, he (Abraham), his natural born sons, and all males in their company, must "cut" מלל the flesh of their formerly uncut ארלה body.

The point of pointing out the exegesis of these two words is to help the non-Hebrew speaking reader appreciate the genesis (17:10-11), and the genius of Paul's outrageous outburst in Philippians 3:2-3. Unlike Saul, Paul realizes there's a fundamental distinction between the two Hebrew words in Genesis 17:10-11 that the Masoretic text glosses over and covers up. It's this coverup that can be shown to produce a significant, literally theology-altering, and thus world-transforming, tautology.



John
 

John D. Brey

Well-Known Member
It seems to me that he is warning Christians not to Judaize or be tempted by the Judaizers or religious Jews, for the only thing which counts with God is faith working through love. What do you see in it?

As I began to note in successive messages in this thread, Paul is using the Greek of his writing and his audience to point out something world-alteringly important about the true exegesis of the foundation of brit milah (ritual circumcision) as it's found in the Hebrew text of Genesis 17:10-11. Paul uses two Greek words to replace two Hebrew words in the seminal text of Genesis 17:10-11. He replaces מול with περιτομη and מלל with κατατομην.

In Greek, περιτομη means "circumcision," while κατατομην means "mutilation" by cutting. In Genesis 17:10-11, God says Abraham's spiritual offspring will be circumcised מול such that he, his natural born offspring, and his male servants, will all be "cut" מלל (not circumcised) in order to mark, make a sign, that in some way signifies the significance not of those being cut מלל, or in Paul's parlance mutilated κατατομην, but rather those who are signified by the sign-producing cutting.

Paul appreciates an enormous problem with the Masoretic interpretation of Genesis 17:10-11. In the Masoretic interpretation of the text, the two words, מול and מלל are conflated to mean the same thing so that those who are "circumcised" מול are those who are "cut" מלל. But that's a mutilation of the meaning of the Hebrew text which Paul seems to imply he thinks is a purposeful mutilation of the text such that he calls those who mutilate the text in that way mutilators rather than members of the true covenant of circumcision.

Paul's words are pretty loaded such that if it can be shown that indeed the Masoretic text is a "mutilation" κατατομην of the true meaning of the seminal text, then theology is in for a true awakening, a true transformation, of truly biblical proportions.



John
 

Kooky

Freedom from Sanity
Paul of Tarsus was indeed one of the primary pioneers of Christian antijudaism.
One can only wonder how much influence his writings may have had on the Christian persecutors of Jews of later ages.
 

Lain

Well-Known Member
As I began to note in successive messages in this thread, Paul is using the Greek of his writing and his audience to point out something world-alteringly important about the true exegesis of the foundation of brit milah (ritual circumcision) as it's found in the Hebrew text of Genesis 17:10-11. Paul uses two Greek words to replace two Hebrew words in the seminal text of Genesis 17:10-11. He replaces מול with περιτομη and מלל with κατατομην.

In Greek, περιτομη means "circumcision," while κατατομην means "mutilation" by cutting. In Genesis 17:10-11, God says Abraham's spiritual offspring will be circumcised מול such that he, his natural born offspring, and his male servants, will all be "cut" מלל (not circumcised) in order to mark, make a sign, that in some way signifies the significance not of those being cut מלל, or in Paul's parlance mutilated κατατομην, but rather those who are signified by the sign-producing cutting.

Paul appreciates an enormous problem with the Masoretic interpretation of Genesis 17:10-11. In the Masoretic interpretation of the text, the two words, מול and מלל are conflated to mean the same thing so that those who are "circumcised" מול are those who are "cut" מלל. But that's a mutilation of the meaning of the Hebrew text which Paul seems to imply he thinks is a purposeful mutilation of the text such that he calls those who mutilate the text in that way mutilators rather than members of the true covenant of circumcision.

Paul's words are pretty loaded such that if it can be shown that indeed the Masoretic text is a "mutilation" κατατομην of the true meaning of the seminal text, then theology is in for a true awakening, a true transformation, of truly biblical proportions.



John

That's actually a pretty amazing find. I wonder of the LXX has the same words in the same place. Might be another MT mutilation.
 

John D. Brey

Well-Known Member
Paul of Tarsus was indeed one of the primary pioneers of Christian antijudaism.
One can only wonder how much influence his writings may have had on the Christian persecutors of Jews of later ages.

A student of history might well note that what you're referring to as Paul's "anti-Judaism" led, in some measure, to Judaism's "anti-Christianity-ism."

More important is your verbiage, or we should say semantic antics, since knowingly or unknowingly you replaced "anti-Semitism" with "anti-Judaism." Paul was Jewish by birth. He was a natural born son of Abraham. So it's probably more correct to use your verbiage, anti-Judaism, rather than the word "anti-Semitic" when trying to understand Paul's arguments.



John
 

John D. Brey

Well-Known Member
That's actually a pretty amazing find. I wonder of the LXX has the same words in the same place. Might be another MT mutilation.

זֹאת בְּרִיתִי אֲשֶׁר תִּשְׁמְרוּ בֵּינִי וּבֵינֵיכֶם וּבֵין זַרְעֲךָ אַחֲרֶיךָ הִמּוֹל לָכֶם כָּל־זָכָר׃
וּנְמַלְתֶּם אֵת בְּשַׂר עָרְלַתְכֶם וְהָיָה לְאוֹת בְּרִית בֵּינִי וּבֵינֵיכֶם׃

10 καὶ αὕτη ἡ διαθήκη, ἣν διατηρήσεις, ἀνὰ μέσον ἐμοῦ καὶ ὑμῶν καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τοῦ σπέρματός σου μετὰ σὲ εἰς τὰς γενεὰς αὐτῶν, περιτμηθήσεται ὑμῶν πᾶν ἀρσενικόν, 11 καὶ περιτμηθήσεσθε τὴν σάρκα τῆς ἀκροβυστίας ὑμῶν, καὶ ἔσται ἐν σημείῳ διαθήκης ἀνὰ μέσον ἐμοῦ καὶ ὑμῶν.​

The Septuagint uses the same word (Paul's word for "circumcision") to translate the two Hebrew words מול and מלל. In the Greek, and the Hebrew, the two words are directly related. So a Hebrew reader might claim that translating מול and מלל the same is legit. And Paul would know that's the argument his Jewish antagonist would use. So we have to dig a little deeper than just the relationship between these words to justify Paul calling the Septuagint and the Masoretic reading of the text a "mutilation" of the true intent of the Author.



John
 
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John D. Brey

Well-Known Member
זֹאת בְּרִיתִי אֲשֶׁר תִּשְׁמְרוּ בֵּינִי וּבֵינֵיכֶם וּבֵין זַרְעֲךָ אַחֲרֶיךָ הִמּוֹל לָכֶם כָּל־זָכָר׃
וּנְמַלְתֶּם אֵת בְּשַׂר עָרְלַתְכֶם וְהָיָה לְאוֹת בְּרִית בֵּינִי וּבֵינֵיכֶם׃

10 καὶ αὕτη ἡ διαθήκη, ἣν διατηρήσεις, ἀνὰ μέσον ἐμοῦ καὶ ὑμῶν καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τοῦ σπέρματός σου μετὰ σὲ εἰς τὰς γενεὰς αὐτῶν, περιτμηθήσεται ὑμῶν πᾶν ἀρσενικόν, 11 καὶ περιτμηθήσεσθε τὴν σάρκα τῆς ἀκροβυστίας ὑμῶν, καὶ ἔσται ἐν σημείῳ διαθήκης ἀνὰ μέσον ἐμοῦ καὶ ὑμῶν.​

The Septuagint uses the same word (Paul's word for "circumcision") to translate the two Hebrew words מול and מלל. In the Greek, and the Hebrew, the two words are directly related. So a Hebrew reader might claim that translating מול and מלל the same is legit. And Paul would know that's the argument his Jewish antagonist would use. So we have to dig a little deeper than just the relationship between these words to justify Paul calling the Septuagint and the Masoretic reading of the text a "mutilation" of the true intent of the Author.

Whereas the Septuagint uses the same Greek word to translate מול and מלל, i.e., the Greek word περιτομη (meaning "circumcision"), Paul separates the two Hebrew words into two distinct Greek words implying, in his Greek translation of the two Hebrew words, that one of the Hebrew words in Genesis 17:10-11, means "to cut, to oppose, to mutilate," i.e., "κατατομην" (as translation of מלל), while the other Hebrew word, מיל, means "circumcision," περιτομη. The Septuagint uses only περιτομη as though there's no distinction between Genesis 17:10, speaking of the covenant of circumcision, versus Genesis 17:11, speaking of cutting the "sign" of the covenant of circumcision.

The "cutting off" of the foreskin could be describe by the term כרת, which is generally used to denote the concept of "cutting off." This term does indeed occur in the Scriptural text . . . Nevertheless, the specific term employed by Scripture for the circumcision of the foreskin is מול: This term must be particularly appropriate to the act of circumcision because it is hardly ever used in Scripture to denote any other "cutting" or "cutting off." The only other use of the root מול in scripture is as a particle, מול, in the connotation of "against," or "opposite.". . If, then, the term for "cutting" is derived from this basic concept of "opposition" or "counteracting," it can denote only a cutting for a specific purpose, and this purpose must be indicated by כרת .מול denotes any form of cutting, be it for the separation or removal of the object that is cut off, or cut down . . . מול, on the other hand, can denote only cutting by which opposition is offered to the object from which the cutting was done.

Rabbi Samson R. Hirsch, Collected Writings, vol. 3, p. 74.

מילה [milah] does not generally mean: to cut, to circumcise; only in connection with ברית מילה [brit milah] does it occur in this sense. מול [mul] means "opposite," as in . . . (Bemidbar 22:5) . . . (Tehillim 118:10): "In God's Name, I will oppose them." As a verb, then מול [mul] means: to oppose, to the limit. To be sure, מול [mul] in connection with ערלה [orlah] means "to cut off.". . . The cutting, however, is merely a means, whereas the end and intention is to oppose, to the limit, the ערלה [orlah], or more precisely: to oppose the הערלה בשר . . ..

The Hirsch Chumash, Genesis 17:10.​

In the quotations, Rabbi Hirsch notes that if the covenant of circumcision was a plain and simple sort of "cutting off" then the word כרת would suffice. He further notes that מול isn't even generally associated with "cutting" (that word is מלל) but with "opposing" something to the limit. Even more important to the current examination of Paul's adding of duality to what the Masoretes and the Septuagint make one single concept, is this statement from Rabbi Hirsch:

It is striking that in our verse מילה [circumcision] itself is called "ברית," [covenant] implying that the very act of circumcision constitutes fulfillment of the covenant. In the next verse however, מילה [circumcision] is called "אות ברית," a sign of the covenant, implying that fulfillment of the covenant entails more than the act of circumcision.

Ibid.​

Whereas Rabbi Hirsch's statement above concedes that there's a "covenant" ברית and a "sign" אות of the covenant, his statement conflates the two in the one word "circumcision" so that although he concedes there are two things, the covenant (which Paul equates with מול), versus the "sign" of the covenant (which Paul equates with מלל), he (Rabbi Hirsch) refuses to note that מול refers to the covenant of "opposition" (מול) to the flesh, while מלל refers to the "cutting, mutilation" of the flesh given as the sign of the covenant of opposition to the flesh.

And yet with that said, we see that Rabbi Hirsch still, contradicting himself, to some extent, speaks as though cutting, mutilating, the flesh, as the "sign" אות of the covenant, is in some manner the instantiation, or initiation, not of a mere sign of the covenant, but of the covenant itself. He must straddle this contradiction since his Judaism assumes that cutting the sign of the covenant into the flesh of one of Abraham's natural born sons enters that son into the covenant.


John
 
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John D. Brey

Well-Known Member
And yet with that said, we see that Rabbi Hirsch still, contradicting himself, to some extent, speaks as though cutting, mutilating, the flesh, as the "sign" אות of the covenant, is in some manner the instantiation, or initiation, not of a mere sign of the covenant, but of the covenant itself. He must straddle this contradiction since his Judaism assumes that cutting the sign of the covenant into the flesh of one of Abraham's natural born sons enters that son into the covenant.

To make the covenant and the sign of the covenant the same thing, creates a tautology by conflating the dualistic concept of the covenant and its sign, as though the sign is the covenant, and the covenant is the sign. But that makes the distinction between sign and signified superfluous.

This tautology in effect says, a Jew is entered into the covenant of circumcision by being entered into the covenant of circumcision. In other words, the way the child is entered into the covenant of circumcision is by being entered into the covenant of circumcision. How is he entered in? And what is the covenant he is entering into? The covenant of being entered into the covenant.

This is a fatal tautology and it's why Paul calls anyone engaged in it mutilators of the flesh. Paul knows his audience is too illiterate for the argumentation given here. And yet Paul, in the most stupendous conflation of his Hebrew knowledge into his Greek language encodes all the foregoing into Philippians 3:2-3 when he points out that whereas the Septuagint and the Masoretic text use the same word to describe a sign, and what it signifies, doing so is a mutilation of the flesh used to signify the spirit, and thus a disservice to the spirit of the flesh of the text.

For we are the circumcision, we who worship God in the spirit, and rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh.

Philippians 3:3.​



John
 
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John D. Brey

Well-Known Member
This is a fatal tautology and it's why Paul calls anyone engaged in it mutilators of the flesh. Paul knows his audience is too illiterate for the argumentation given here. And yet Paul, in the most stupendous conflation of his Hebrew knowledge into his Greek language encodes all the foregoing into Philippians 3:2-3 when he points out that whereas the Septuagint and the Masoretic text use the same word to describe a sign, and what it signifies, doing so is a mutilation of the flesh used to signify the spirit, and thus a disservice to the spirit of the flesh of the text.

For we are the circumcision, we who worship God in the spirit, and rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh.

Philippians 3:3.​

Why, after pointing out the tautological mutilation of the Hebrew text of Genesis 17:10-11, does Paul make the statement above? How does rejoicing in Christ Jesus, and having no confidence in the flesh, directly relate to, or better, signify, a correction of the error made by the Septuagint and the Masoretic text, whereby they conflate the sign of circumcision with the actuality the sign should signify?

This whole context compels us to view the institution of מילה as a symbolic act. Thus, we would hardly be justified in going any further and looking for the significance of this act anywhere else than in the understanding that is offered to us by the metaphoric use of this term. מילה ערלה literally denotes the conquest of an object that has been recalcitrant in that it has exceeded its proper limitations. Should it, then have any other meaning than the symbolic one? Hardly so.

Rabbi Samson Hirsch, Collected Writings, vol. 3, p. 76.​

Building on what he said in his Chumash, Rabbi Hirsch comes around to the point of this thread. I.e., since brit milah is clearly a sign, mustn't it surely have a "symbolic" significance related to the meaning of the words, and the ritual act ----cutting flesh ----related to those words? Rabbi Hirsch answers in the affirmative. So:

What idea, then, would be expressed by מילת בשר ערלתו as a symbolic act, parallel with the common figure of speech מילת ערלה, and what would be the relation between this idea and the covenant for which it had been ordained as אות ברית, a covenantal symbol?

Ibid.​

Knowing the legitimacy of calling the tautological understanding of Genesis 17:10-11 a mutilation of the text, Rabbi Hirsch gingerly attempts to find a possible suitor for the sign אות element of the covenantal symbol?

The only question now remaining would be to what extent the concept of the object of circumcision should be explored. Should it be interpreted literally, only as an organ, with its own functions, or should it, in the context of this symbol, be interpreted to include all the physical aspects of the human body? Since the term is apt to occur in conjunction with בשר; e.g., ערל בשר, בשר ערלה, one might suggest that it should be interpreted in the latter, broader connotation; i.e., as representing all the physical aspects of our bodies to be ערלה, not to leave them to their own devices, but to "put up opposition" to them and to assume control over them for the covenant which circumcision is to symbolize.

Ibid.​



John
 

John D. Brey

Well-Known Member
Why, after pointing out the tautological mutilation of the Hebrew text of Genesis 17:10-11, does Paul make the statement above? How does rejoicing in Christ Jesus, and having no confidence in the flesh, directly relate to, or better, signify, a correction of the error made by the Septuagint and the Masoretic text, whereby they conflate the sign of circumcision with the actuality the sign should signify?

This whole context compels us to view the institution of מילה as a symbolic act. Thus, we would hardly be justified in going any further and looking for the significance of this act anywhere else than in the understanding that is offered to us by the metaphoric use of this term. מילה ערלה literally denotes the conquest of an object that has been recalcitrant in that it has exceeded its proper limitations. Should it, then have any other meaning than the symbolic one? Hardly so.

Rabbi Samson Hirsch, Collected Writings, vol. 3, p. 76.​

Building on what he said in his Chumash, Rabbi Hirsch comes around to the point of this thread. I.e., since brit milah is clearly a sign, mustn't it surely have a "symbolic" significance related to the meaning of the words, and the ritual act ----cutting flesh ----related to those words? Rabbi Hirsch answers in the affirmative. So:

What idea, then, would be expressed by מילת בשר ערלתו as a symbolic act, parallel with the common figure of speech מילת ערלה, and what would be the relation between this idea and the covenant for which it had been ordained as אות ברית, a covenantal symbol?

Ibid.​

Knowing the legitimacy of calling the tautological understanding of Genesis 17:10-11 a mutilation of the text, Rabbi Hirsch gingerly attempts to find a possible suitor for the sign אות element of the covenantal symbol?

The only question now remaining would be to what extent the concept of the object of circumcision should be explored. Should it be interpreted literally, only as an organ, with its own functions, or should it, in the context of this symbol, be interpreted to include all the physical aspects of the human body? Since the term is apt to occur in conjunction with בשר; e.g., ערל בשר, בשר ערלה, one might suggest that it should be interpreted in the latter, broader connotation; i.e., as representing all the physical aspects of our bodies to be ערלה, not to leave them to their own devices, but to "put up opposition" to them and to assume control over them for the covenant which circumcision is to symbolize.

Ibid.​

Since Rabbi Hirsch is clearly aware that the Chazal stated that circumcision takes place on the organ that determines gender, male, and since he knows that brit milah (ritual circumcision) is said throughout the Talmud, and midrashim in general, to represent a blood sacrifice, we now know precisely why Paul, after locating the true meaning of the mutilation, the cutting, signifying the spiritual offspring of Abraham, states that it is we, who are reborn through Christ Jesus, who put no confidence in the reproductive abilities of the male flesh (where the cutting takes place) who are the true circumcision.

Jesus is the first male child born in the line of Abraham who need have zero confidence in the male flesh symbolically sacrificed in brit milah (ritual circumcision) since he's the first Jewish male born apart from the flesh only ritually sacrificed, symbolically opposed through a cutting mutilation, in the rituals and symbols that led to the victorious proclamation of his virgin conception and birth.



John
 
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