rainbowchristianqld
Member
To your knowledge...cheers for thatIacobPersul said:OK. I can see that you're just not getting it. The love between two men mentioned in the Bible is always (to my knowledge) rendered using agape in Greek, not eros. This includes that from your OT examples when translated into Greek (which was done by Jews, not Christians and prior to Christ's Incarnation). The examples that you give, then, do not bolster your case at all as they specifically preclude sexual love. Adding more examples of the same won't alter this.
There's several instances of the word "Love" in the NT as well )
You do have a point with relation to the times the Scriptures were written in (homosexual acts being, generally, promiscuous and often associated with pagan cults) but I feel that you are drawing conclusions that are not warranted. I said to you from the start that homosexuality is not a sin and, as homosexual sex acts were often accepted as part of normal sexual behaviour in ancient cultures, for instance Greece and Rome, there was actually no concept of an exclusively homosexual person to condemn. It was not and is not considered sinful to be attracted to members of the same sex. I wouldn't even consider it sinful to be in love with someone of the same sex (using eros here), but this doesn't alter the fact that homosexual sex acts are explicitly condemned, as are all sex acts outside of marriage. Verses explicitly condemning sex between lesbians and gay men have already been quoted here by others and so I will not repeat them.
Sorry, but you've just completely contradicted your self with that last bit... You just stated that the acts written about were "homosexual acts being, generally, promiscuous and often associated with pagan cults"... They don't condemn sex between lesbians and men in general and especially not in a committed/blessed/married relationship. (and you didn't address what I said about "How Marriage Changes" either...)
Pretty much all the ones that I Quote come from my NIV mate... Are you saying "Your Bible is more Correct than mine?" or that "My Bible is lying?"Finally, I'd just like to point out that I didn't agree with you at all on the quote from 1 Samuel. What I did say was that, if you used your rather poor translation of the text (that omits all mention of souls even though this is explicit in the text) then I could understand why you might think it referred to physical and not spiritual love. As, however, I think it's one of the worst renderings (what version is it from, by the way?) that I've seen, I cannot agree with your conclusions, however much I might sympathise. To be honest, it's always best to check a few versions of the text (and if possible the originals - though I can't read Hebrew at all, for me the Septuagint is the original. It's certainly older than the Masoretic Text) to see whether your favoured version is accurate or not. I'm afraid in this instance yours isn't.
James
Most of the ones that I quote, I do check out the NKJ and the KJV as well, and they seem pretty similar. If one is easier to understand, I often use that one.
Concerning "Spiritual Love", I have found that spiritual love is an even deeper love than that of "Physical Love" (wether it's hetero or homo). If 2 men "bound their souls together with spiritual love" - no one would doubt that they were gay lovers or even seen as Married to eachother.... and as I said, David proclaimed that Jonathan's Love was better than any womans...