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Discussion in 'General Religious Debates' started by Mark1615, Jan 27, 2006.

  1. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    First off, there are three views (that I'm aware of anyway) as to the origin of these giants.

    The first view: Men from the line of Seth - these giant men were marrying ungodly women from the line of Cain in Gen. 4 and the line of Seth in Gen. 5. Many people hold this view partly because of Matthew 22:30, which says that angels do not marry.

    The second view: Dynastic Kings - these kings were creating polygamous harems. These rulers are called "sons of the Most High" in Psalm 82:6. However, polygamy is a sin contrary to God's stated intended design (Gen. 2:22-24).

    The third view: Fallen Angels or Nephilim - these fallen angels procreated with human women. The Hebrew term "bene elohim" which means "sons of God" is only used of angels in Scriptures (Job 1:6; 38:7; Ps. 89:6). The sons of God are contrasted with the daughters of men (Gen. 6:4). This view could explain 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 6.

    There is much more to each of these views, so if you are truly interested do some research. It's really interesting.

    Anyway, I don't know where these giants went, or if they even are truly gone. Some say that they died off with Noah's flood, but there is mention of them in various books after the flood. Others say that the evil spirits that indwelt in them live on in other forms. But I really don't know what happened to these particular giants.:sarcastic
     
  2. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    I know the Bible is accurate in the same way that Muslims know the Old Testament is accurate.
     
  3. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    First, much frubals to your thoughtful questions! I'll TRY to answer them all. Please be patient.
     
  4. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    Jesus' mission wasn't only to Israel, but to the entire world (John 3:16). Thus, He didn't fail at His mission.
     
  5. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    I think you should read those Matthew chapters in their entirety. Your context is off. Chapter 7 is saying not to speak to those who may "trample" the gospel. This refers to anyone - Jew or Gentile. Chapter 15 is speaking to a Caananite woman, not a Jew. Yet, Jesus said that because of her faith, her daughter was healed.

    Always remember: CONTEXT, CONTEXT, CONTEXT.
     
  6. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    Jesus told His disciples to preach to the Jews FIRST. These people were His first priority, because they are God's chosen people. But either way, all people can come to know Christ regardless of their background.
     
  7. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    Oops, I missed the second part of your queston. As you pointed out in Acts 15, the debate was whether or not Gentiles had to become Jewish first to be saved. But as Peter points out, Jesus knows the hearts of Gentiles and Jews and had put no difference between them, purifying the Gentiles by faith.
     
  8. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    Are you arguing over the fact that Jesus didn't enter the tomb alive like Jonah did in the fish, but dead? I would argue that resurrecting oneself from the dead is quite a sign indeed, even if He didn't follow Jonah's example exactly.
     
  9. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    I think you already asked this question, which was answered.
     
  10. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    Because He is God. Jesus, the Father, and the Holy Spirit are all part of one God - Yahweh. See John 14:6-13.
     
  11. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    Jesus couldn't say that He was changing the Law or introducing a different understanding of it, because He didn't change the Law. Jesus goes on to explain that He came to fulfill the Law, which means that in essence He is introducing a new concept - that being He is God. See John 14:6-13.
     
  12. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    I am not completely sure what Jesus meant by "generation." Maybe the Greek meaning is different. However, I do know that most, if not all, Bible scholars believe this prophecy to refer to the last days (the Tribulation), which of course has yet to happen.
     
  13. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    Jesus was warning against hypocrisy. Since Jesus is perfect, I quess He has the right to do so. Jesus was pointing out a fact: that the Jewish leaders were being hypocrites - being religious only on the outside.
     
  14. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    Jesus gives us the answer in verse 67 and 68.
     
  15. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    I don't think that Jesus was referring to a literal interpretation of the word "Son." You have to look at the context of the time back then. Jesus was speaking to people who knew the Old Testament and therefore knew about Yahweh and that He was one God. In John 14:6-13, Jesus clearly states that He and God are one.
     
  16. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    God did deliver Jesus out of all of His afflictions - Jesus never sinned. However, Jesus had to die in order to fulfill the Messianic prophecy. Also, the meaning of "died" needs to be looked at, because Jesus died, but didn't stay that way.
     
  17. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    Because Jesus had to fulfill the Messianic prophecy by dying, which included Judas who betrayed Jesus for 30 pieces of silver.
     
  18. Mark1615

    Mark1615 Member

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    Jesus said "to you which have followed me..." Maybe Jesus was referring only to those that truly love Him, leaving out Judas. I really don't know.

    Many things in the Bible are included to confuse those who won't believe.
     
  19. Anastasios

    Anastasios Member

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    I really appreciate your passion. I have time and patience.

    Take it easy!

    Regards.
     
  20. Bishadi

    Bishadi Active Member

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    Mark.... I see the people of Islam are working on you and your doing a fine job.

    I have a simple thought that immediately came to mind; what is more important the message, "follow the rules" or "go ahead, I'm dying for your sins, anyway"....?

    My point is as a "prophet" would it not be possible that he was issuing a message versus suggesting he was "dying for our sins?"

    The reason I suggest this is because in other works he clearly eludes accepting the claim of being "a" or 'the' messiah. Try the gospel according to thomas ... http://www.gnosis.org/naghamm/gthlamb.html

    I point this direction because you clearly enjoy Jesus and these are supposed to be quotes from a 400AD papyrus eliminating the 1600 years of biblical, let's say, "adjustments"

    Nothing is negative, you are holding your own and although a little overboard, on a very similar path as I was 20+ years back, and the more you read the better you will fare.

    Just keep in mind as they added to the Bible to account for new understanding, be prepared for additional reading as required.
     
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