I'm still very busy, but I'll try my best to respond to the posts.
Hope things are less hectic for you, my friend... good to have you back.
You're testing my memory of this thread now.... If you are posting this to somehow imply that the Apocrypha does not have any support from the Bible, I think you might be suprised. Have you ever read the Apocrypha?
I posted that because you implied that the Watchtower publications was a seperate teaching from the Bible. And yes, I have got a copy of "The Apocrypha" in my library, and I have read several passages before. However, I have also read the Bible, and I could'nt help notice the complete difference in writing style between the two. The Apocrypha is mostly written in a 1st person format.
There are some very striking similarities between some verses and the Bible.... some might argue they are evidence!
Here's just a few from the Gospel of Matthew:
Matt. 2:16 - Herod's decree of slaying innocent children was prophesied in Wis. 11:7 - slaying the holy innocents.
Matt. 6:19-20 - Jesus' statement about laying up for yourselves treasure in heaven follows Sirach 29:11 - lay up your treasure.
Matt.. 7:12 - Jesus' golden rule "do unto others" is the converse of Tobit 4:15 - what you hate, do not do to others.
Matt. 7:16,20 - Jesus' statement "you will know them by their fruits" follows Sirach 27:6 - the fruit discloses the cultivation.
Matt. 9:36 - the people were "like sheep without a shepherd" is same as Judith 11:19 - sheep without a shepherd.
Matt. 11:25 - Jesus' description "Lord of heaven and earth" is the same as Tobit 7:18 - Lord of heaven and earth.
Matt. 12:42 - Jesus refers to the wisdom of Solomon which was recorded and made part of the deuterocanonical books.
Matt. 16:18 - Jesus' reference to the "power of death" and "gates of Hades" references Wisdom 16:13.
Matt. 22:25; Mark 12:20; Luke 20:29 - Gospel writers refer to the canonicity of Tobit 3:8 and 7:11 regarding the seven brothers.
Matt. 24:15 - the "desolating sacrilege" Jesus refers to is also taken from 1 Macc. 1:54 and 2 Macc. 8:17.
Matt. 24:16 - let those "flee to the mountains" is taken from 1 Macc. 2:28.
Matt. 27:43 - if He is God's Son, let God deliver him from His adversaries follows Wisdom 2:18.
Similar verses does not automatically prove divinity. The Quran has many similar verses to the Bible, including some stories that are the same, so I guess you accept that the Quran is canonical with the Bible and therefore, should be printed along with the Bible so that it is one massive book that includes the Apocrypha, the Quran, and the Bible! :162:
What actually really matters
is what's inside those books - and you have to examine them from cover to cover. Evidence is not copying scriptures from the Bible - evidence is divine intervention and originality. I could jot down and copy some Bible scriptures onto a notepad with a few other invented doctrines....so I guess my notepad is divine now? The same can be said for the Apocrypha. Yes, the Apocrypha has some similar passages to the Bible, yes, the Apocrypha contradicts the Bible, and yes, it has many elementary mistakes in it also. Do you honestly think it is a book directly from God?
Look up the thread here called Bible Discrepancies and you will notice your questions and comments mirror exactly what atheists and non-Christians are posting. Your always explainable does not mean without a doubt... you are just going on the assumption that you're correct in a certain matter and that the other person "just doesn't get it"....
As far as all of your "contradictions" .... I'll pass. I must admit that I am not interested in a back and forth about yours or my explainations of a particluar verse.... I would prefer to speak about the formation of the Bible as it related to the DC books....but I did tell you I would follow your lead, so if you must focus on this, I will concede. Let's move on.
This is what I'm getting at. You can't have a discussion
about the Apocrypha without having a look inside it. Historical formation means absolutely nothing if inside the pages of the Apocrypha, it has false teachings. Until you decide to have an open mind and actually have a look at the Apocrypha itself - this argument won't be progressing very far.
How soon was Ruth written from when it took place "in the time of judges' (Ruth 1:1)
Ruth was written about 10 years
after the book of Judges was completed. Ruth was completed in 1090 B.C.E., and Judges was completed in 1100 B.C.E - both which were written by Samuel. I'm not sure what you're getting at here but if 10 years difference and books written by the same writer is in favour of your argument...
Anyhow - back to Maccabees! Why did "God decide" to leave out the identity of the writer of that book when it would go against the grain of the rest of his books? For all we know, this guy could have been an unrighteous, immoral man - and nobody can say for sure one way or the other! His message in Maccabees is nothing to write home about, so why awould God leave his name out? The man even credited himself for his "masterpiece" of the Maccabees! "And here will I end
. And if I have done well, and as is fitting the story, it is that which I desired
: but if slenderly and meanly, it is that which I could attain unto. For as it is hurtful to drink wine or water alone, and as wine mingled with water is pleasant, and delighteth the taste: even so speech finely framed delighteth the ears of them that read the story. And here shall be an end." (2 Macc. 15:37-39)