Tiberius
Well-Known Member
The authors of star trek didn't intended to report real histoy , srar trek fails at point 1
Yes they did. Can you prove they didn't?
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The authors of star trek didn't intended to report real histoy , srar trek fails at point 1
Not familiar with Babylon 5 sorry.
What the criteria of embarrassment says is that if a testimony has details that go against the purpose that the author has, then those details are likely to be true......and the author is likely to be honest.
Then by that logic all religious texts - from the Koran to the Gita - are true.
The gospels don't even agree what Jesus' final words were.
I don't think there's any evidence of that. I think they intended to pass on a story about the person they'd never met but venerated. None of them ever met Jesus, and each had his own version of who Jesus was.The reason I would argue that the Gospels are reliable from a historical point of view is because I belive that points 1,2 and 3 are ture:
1 the authors intended to report what actually happened
There's no evidence of that either. Paul never met Jesus. The author of Mark wrote the first purported bio of Jesus some 45 years after the traditional date of Jesus' death, and making up his plot from parts of the Tanakh that seemed to him useful as "messianic prophecies". and borrowing his trial scene from Josephus' account of the trial of another Jesus, and so on.2 The authors had access to reliable sources.
It does in Mark. As the authors of Matthew and Luke retell it, the Jesus character at the crucifixion moves from Mark's broken and defeated figure till we get to John's Jesus acting more like MC.*Embarrassing details: Jesus had a humiliating death,
Are the gospels meant to be exactly the same?
Regarding point 1, which I would support using the epistles as they make passing references to things, I would say yes and no. The gospels are reliable historically regarding various things, especially culture, but so is historical fiction.The reason I would argue that the Gospels are reliable from a historical point of view is because I belive that points 1,2 and 3 are ture:
1 the authors intended to report what actually happened
2 The authors had access to reliable sources.
3 So if an author tries to be accurate and has reliable sources it follows (inductively) that his work is reliable.
if you disagree with ether 1,2 or 3 please let me know why you disagree.
1 the authors intended to report what actually happened
Given the literary genera of the text (Greco roman biography) and the fact that the gosspels are fool of embarrassing details* it seems probable that point 1 is true
2 The authors had access to reliable sources.
Given that most of the political, historical, demographic and geographical details** in the gospels are accurate … it seems probable that the authors had access to good sources, otherwise they would have not known those details.
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*Embarrassing details: Jesus had a humiliating death, Peter denied Jesus, The empty tomb was discovered by woman, he was buried in the tomb of a Jewish Sanhedrin, Jesus had limited knowledge, etc. all these details represented obstacles for the early Christians, (things would have been easier without those embarrassing details)
** There really was a Pilate, there really was a Caiphas, the ratio of common names vs uncommon names are consistent, there really was a Jewish Sanhedrin that had some power and influence over the romans, they villages, towns cities etc. really excisted…………onlyh someone who was there or who had acces to reliable source could have known all these.
1) It seems to me that the authors intended to spread Christianity by extolling the deeds of their revered messiah in these books. What reason is there to suppose they wished to be accurate then? It's more in keeping with a promotional booklet you get from an organization than an actual history.The reason I would argue that the Gospels are reliable from a historical point of view is because I belive that points 1,2 and 3 are ture:
1 the authors intended to report what actually happened
2 The authors had access to reliable sources.
3 So if an author tries to be accurate and has reliable sources it follows (inductively) that his work is reliable.
if you disagree with ether 1,2 or 3 please let me know why you disagree.
1 the authors intended to report what actually happened
Given the literary genera of the text (Greco roman biography) and the fact that the gosspels are fool of embarrassing details* it seems probable that point 1 is true
2 The authors had access to reliable sources.
Given that most of the political, historical, demographic and geographical details** in the gospels are accurate … it seems probable that the authors had access to good sources, otherwise they would have not known those details.
---
*Embarrassing details: Jesus had a humiliating death, Peter denied Jesus, The empty tomb was discovered by woman, he was buried in the tomb of a Jewish Sanhedrin, Jesus had limited knowledge, etc. all these details represented obstacles for the early Christians, (things would have been easier without those embarrassing details)
** There really was a Pilate, there really was a Caiphas, the ratio of common names vs uncommon names are consistent, there really was a Jewish Sanhedrin that had some power and influence over the romans, they villages, towns cities etc. really excisted…………onlyh someone who was there or who had acces to reliable source could have known all these.
So are the Greek myths true because they tell embarrassing stories about their gods? Would that make their gods more true than your one because the Bible doesn't tell embarrassing tales about god?Not familiar with Babylon 5 sorry.
What the criteria of embarrassment says is that if a testimony has details that go against the purpose that the author has, then those details are likely to be true......and the author is likely to be honest.
The reason I would argue that the Gospels are reliable from a historical point of view is because I belive that points 1,2 and 3 are ture:
1 the authors intended to report what actually happened
2 The authors had access to reliable sources.
3 So if an author tries to be accurate and has reliable sources it follows (inductively) that his work is reliable.
if you disagree with ether 1,2 or 3 please let me know why you disagree.
1 the authors intended to report what actually happened
Given the literary genera of the text (Greco roman biography) and the fact that the gosspels are fool of embarrassing details* it seems probable that point 1 is true
2 The authors had access to reliable sources.
Given that most of the political, historical, demographic and geographical details** in the gospels are accurate … it seems probable that the authors had access to good sources, otherwise they would have not known those details.
---
*Embarrassing details: Jesus had a humiliating death, Peter denied Jesus, The empty tomb was discovered by woman, he was buried in the tomb of a Jewish Sanhedrin, Jesus had limited knowledge, etc. all these details represented obstacles for the early Christians, (things would have been easier without those embarrassing details)
** There really was a Pilate, there really was a Caiphas, the ratio of common names vs uncommon names are consistent, there really was a Jewish Sanhedrin that had some power and influence over the romans, they villages, towns cities etc. really excisted…………onlyh someone who was there or who had acces to reliable source could have known all these.
Yes they did. Can you prove they didn't?
1. How Many women came to Jesus' tomb?Which outright falsehoods?
I don't think there's any evidence of that. I think they intended to pass on a story about the person they'd never met but venerated. None of them ever met Jesus, and each had his own version of who Jesus was.
And miracles were no more real 2000 years ago than they are now
There's no evidence of that either. Paul never met Jesus. The author of Mark wrote the first purported bio of Jesus some 45 years after the traditional date of Jesus' death, and making up his plot from parts of the Tanakh that seemed to him useful as "messianic prophecies". and borrowing his trial scene from Josephus' account of the trial of another Jesus, and so on.
It does in Mark. As the authors of Matthew and Luke retell it, the Jesus character at the crucifixion moves from Mark's broken and defeated figure till we get to John's Jesus acting more like MC.
However, I agree it's a recognized rule in reading history that embarrassing stories are more likely to be true. The most curious one, I think, is how Jesus in all four gospels never has a kind word for his mother or his family, the sole exception being at John's crucifixion scene. See Mark 3:31-35, Mark 6:4-5, Matthew 10:35-37, Luke 11:27. John 2:3, contrast John 19:26. If I were making a case for an historical Jesus, I'd start with this.
If they're describing the same event, why would they differ?
First, the authors of the gospels are unknown. There is no evidence that they were the people attributed.The reason I would argue that the Gospels are reliable from a historical point of view is because I belive that points 1,2 and 3 are ture:
1 the authors intended to report what actually happened
The authors' sources were unknown, and almost certainly not first person.2 The authors had access to reliable sources.
3 So if an author tries to be accurate and has reliable sources it followsThe authors had a personal agenda, and their sources were hearsay, at best.
The criteria of embarrassment is related to point 1 in the OP.......which you already granted.Oh my!! You do have a problem understanding your errors. Certain biblical scholars that already want to believe the mythos use this as an excuse. Now if real scholars, historical scholars, used this then you might have a point. Many scholars will simply laugh at such a claim.
To accept Josephus' often tendentious evaluation of the motives and characters of the Jews and Romans whose actions constitute his narrative would be rash, but to accept the details of his narrative, particularly when they contradict his own explanations of events, and so survive in the narrative only because they happened, is reasonable.Non-Biblical Historians and the Criteria of Embarassment
Yes and this proves that the author of spider Man has access to reliable sources. Otherwise he wouldn't know the names of the cities the existence of mayor's .Not
The political structure of Jerusalem as some areas in the region are common knowledge. Spiderman is in Queens, New-York City and accurately describe the existence of mayors, governors, US Presidents and a variety of police officials and the structure of some media corporations and even some historical events and social upheavals. Spiderman comic books aren't historical documents.
No because the author didn't intended to write real history(despite having good sources)Spiderman comic books aren't historical documents
Paul and tacitus: corroborate the crusifiction
Josephus corroborates that there was a Caephas a Peter a James etc.
The villages and toes where real, we can very for example that there was sea in galley,
Josephus corroborates the political structure of Jerusalem
Etc
Only someone with access to good sources would know all this
Of course. You have the ability to conclude damn near anything you want, but why anyone should consider that a positive attribute is beyond me.Again you don't need to know who the author is, in order to conclude that a document is reliable.