stevecanuck
Well-Known Member
I would like some direction from the Muslims on this forum. I did a deep dive into the Qur'an on the issue of veiling, and came up with more questions than answers.
Verse 33:59 tells Muslim women to "draw over themselves their outer garments" so that they will be "known and not abused". This is suggestive of an extra layer of coverage sufficient to differentiate Muslim women from others.
Verse 24:31 adds, "And tell the believing women ... to not expose their adornment except that which [necessarily] appears thereof and to wrap [a portion of] their head covers over their chests and not expose their adornment except to their husbands, their fathers, their husbands' fathers, their sons, their husbands' sons, their brothers, their brothers' sons, their sisters' sons, etc. ...".
I think it's pretty clear from the underlined phrases, especially in 24:31, which sandwiches the admonition to wear a veil between two instructions to hide their "adornment", that women are required to cover themselves to the extent of concealing their femininity.
Just when you think you might have a handle on it, verse 24:61 comes along and casts doubt on the whole concept. It says of postmenopausal women that, "it is no sin on them if they discard their (outer) clothing in such a way as not to show their adornment". Wait. What? This brings into question the necessity of veiling in the first place. It clearly implies that it is possible for women to not wear an extra layer while at the same time not showing, "their adornment".
Can anyone make sense of all that for me, or do we just chock this up as another example of the real author of the Qur'an (Mohamed) having trouble keeping his story straight?
Verse 33:59 tells Muslim women to "draw over themselves their outer garments" so that they will be "known and not abused". This is suggestive of an extra layer of coverage sufficient to differentiate Muslim women from others.
Verse 24:31 adds, "And tell the believing women ... to not expose their adornment except that which [necessarily] appears thereof and to wrap [a portion of] their head covers over their chests and not expose their adornment except to their husbands, their fathers, their husbands' fathers, their sons, their husbands' sons, their brothers, their brothers' sons, their sisters' sons, etc. ...".
I think it's pretty clear from the underlined phrases, especially in 24:31, which sandwiches the admonition to wear a veil between two instructions to hide their "adornment", that women are required to cover themselves to the extent of concealing their femininity.
Just when you think you might have a handle on it, verse 24:61 comes along and casts doubt on the whole concept. It says of postmenopausal women that, "it is no sin on them if they discard their (outer) clothing in such a way as not to show their adornment". Wait. What? This brings into question the necessity of veiling in the first place. It clearly implies that it is possible for women to not wear an extra layer while at the same time not showing, "their adornment".
Can anyone make sense of all that for me, or do we just chock this up as another example of the real author of the Qur'an (Mohamed) having trouble keeping his story straight?