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Agape Love vs Philia Love

Falvlun

Earthbending Lemur
Premium Member
In researching for a different post, I stumbled upon an interesting contradition.
Christians have adopted "agape love" as the epitome of how a Christian should love.
According to a Christian site:
Agape
A special word representing the divine love of God toward His Son, human beings in general and believers. It is also used to depict the outwardly focused love God expects believers to have for one another.
and
This kind of love is perhaps best expressed in Jesus Christ's statement in John 15:13, "Greater love [agape] has no one than this, than to lay down one's life for his friends." Jesus Himself perfectly exemplified this kind of love throughout His lifetime, continually giving of Himself and His time and energies to serve others and ultimately offering up His life as a sacrifice for all of humanity. This is the kind of love God wants each of us to exemplify in our lives and particularly in our marriages.

Philia love, on the other hand:
means "'to have ardent affection and feeling'—a type of impulsive love" (Nelson's New Illustrated Bible Dictionary, 1995, "Love"). This is the natural, human type of love and affection that we have for a friend and is often defined as "brotherly love."
In John 21:15-16, Jesus asked Peter if he loved Him with the agapao type of love and Peter responded that he had the normal human phileo type of love for Him. Later, after receiving the Holy Spirit, Peter would be able to genuinely demonstrate agapao-type godly love, serving others throughout his lifetime and making the ultimate sacrifice in martyrdom.

source: The Different Kinds of Love Mentioned in the Bible > Marriage and Family: The Missing Dimension

But if we go to good ole Wikipedia, we get a sort of opposite rendition:

Agape:
means "love" in modern day Greek, such as in the term s'agapo (Σ'αγαπώ), which means"I love you". In Ancient Greek it often refers to a general affection rather than the attraction suggested by "eros"; agape is used in ancient texts to denote feelings for a good meal, one's children, and the feelings for a spouse. It can be described as the feeling of being content or holding one in high regard.

Philia:
which means friendship in modern Greek, a dispassionate virtuous love, was a concept developed by Aristotle. It includes loyalty to friends, family, and community, and requires virtue, equality and familiarity. In ancient texts, philia denoted a general type of love, used for love between family, between friends, a desire or enjoyment of an activity, as well as between lovers.

Is it just me, or did the Christians flip the meanings of the words? Philia seems to me to be the more virtuous sort of love. Futhermore, the selflessness that is supposed to characterize agape love is completely missing from its actual Greek definition. In fact, agape love seems to be rather similiar to the common English definition of "love", though Christians seem to go through great pains to draw disimilarities between them. What gives?
 

Sunstone

De Diablo Del Fora
Premium Member
When it comes to the ancient Greek words for love, everything depends on which scholar or source you look at. (Even the transliteration of the words varies from one source to another, especially in the case of "philia" -- philia, phileo, philos, etc.) Ever since I became interested in the subject 35 years ago, I've read so many differing accounts of what the ancient Greeks meant by eros, philia, agape, and one or two other words they sometimes used for "love", that my head is permanently dizzy now.

Nevertheless, I do think you are in agreement with several scholars in saying that Christians altered the meanings of the words to suite their own purposes. That, however, is a common and continuous practice the world over. Simply look at how the word "force" was given an additional new meaning by the Star Wars series.
 
A

angellous_evangellous

Guest
Agape and Phileo are the same thing.

End of story.
 

astarath

Well-Known Member
agape and philio do differ however this is one of those fun translational miscues in which a concept probably outlined in hebrew or aramaic is poorly translated into a foreign tongue and the meaning immediately contradicts the message offered.
 

Falvlun

Earthbending Lemur
Premium Member
Nevertheless, I do think you are in agreement with several scholars in saying that Christians altered the meanings of the words to suite their own purposes. That, however, is a common and continuous practice the world over. Simply look at how the word "force" was given an additional new meaning by the Star Wars series.
Good point, and it does make sense for a group to create specific labels to better convey what they mean. It just seems to me that if Paul wrote "agape" then he meant "agape", and not some new definition that no one ever heard of before; to say otherwise is to retroactively change the meaning of his words. Unless, of course, Paul was actively re-writing the definition himself...

angellous_evangellous said:
Agape and Phileo are the same thing.

End of story.
The more I read the two Wiki definitions, the more this makes sense. Both refer to a general love towards family, friends, and things.

The only difference is that philia also had a "virtuous" connotation imparted by Aristotle, and means friendship in modern Greek, whereas agape means love.

I wonder what a Greek-speaking person makes of the Christian definition of agape.

astarath said:
agape and philio do differ however this is one of those fun translational miscues in which a concept probably outlined in hebrew or aramaic is poorly translated into a foreign tongue and the meaning immediately contradicts the message offered.
Greek was the original language of these letters, so translation shouldn't have been a problem.
 

astarath

Well-Known Member
correct was the original written language unfortunately these letters were not the originals immediately placed into a book and scripted from one to another. Rather they were dictated most likely in Aramaic or Hebrew and transcribed in greek.
 

Charity

Let's go racing boys !
When it comes to the ancient Greek words for love, everything depends on which scholar or source you look at. (Even the transliteration of the words varies from one source to another, especially in the case of "philia" -- philia, phileo, philos, etc.) Ever since I became interested in the subject 35 years ago, I've read so many differing accounts of what the ancient Greeks meant by eros, philia, agape, and one or two other words they sometimes used for "love", that my head is permanently dizzy now.

Nevertheless, I do think you are in agreement with several scholars in saying that Christians altered the meanings of the words to suite their own purposes. That, however, is a common and continuous practice the world over. Simply look at how the word "force" was given an additional new meaning by the Star Wars series.
Well as Christians we believe that "The Force is with us".......:D
And it's because of "Agape" Love ;)
Phil, sweetie your head isn't dizzy from many differing accounts of words but from the many beers that you are consuming......:biglaugh:....You should clear your head with a shot of Tequila ever so often.....
 

tomspug

Absorbant
I see love, rather than being a series of categories, as being a scale that leads into infinity. This is why I agree with AE that there isn't much distinction between agape and phileos (a philosophical conception, which is suspect immediately). Eros, on the other hand, is not love. With sexual love, there is an intermingling of desire and service, which clearly is more complicated or, at the very least, different from appreciation and devotion.

The clear distinction, in my mind, is that there is love through words and love through action. What better way to demonstrate love than to sacrifice yourself for another person? In my mind, there is none, which is why Jesus points to it so fervently.
 

Falvlun

Earthbending Lemur
Premium Member
correct was the original written language unfortunately these letters were not the originals immediately placed into a book and scripted from one to another. Rather they were dictated most likely in Aramaic or Hebrew and transcribed in greek.

So you are saying that it was correctly written in Greek, then translated to Aramaic, and then mis-translated back into Greek? Forgive me for being skeptical. This wasn't a one-time "error" as the agape vs phileo concept is found a few times throughout the New Testament. Also, I'm sure biblical and historical scholars would have been all over this by now if that were the case. Many people were speaking Greek back then, too, and the error should have been caught.

We are not talking about some obscure verse in Nahum. This is a major Christian concept. Is it really probable that it was simply some scribe's error?

(By the way, what exactly is the error you have in mind? Are you thinking that philia and agape got swapped somehow?)

tomspug said:
I see love, rather than being a series of categories, as being a scale that leads into infinity.
I'm not sure I see a distinction between a series of categories and a scale...

For what it's worth, I see the different sorts of love more like a network, all interconnected, all having their part, all necessary.

tomspug said:
This is why I agree with AE that there isn't much distinction between agape and phileos (a philosophical conception, which is suspect immediately). Eros, on the other hand, is not love. With sexual love, there is an intermingling of desire and service, which clearly is more complicated or, at the very least, different from appreciation and devotion.
Certainly there is a similarity between all the loves; otherwise, they wouldn't have all been characterized as a type of love (and yes, this would have to include eros love, too).

I'm surprised that you agree with AE though, since you seemed to go through great pains in the "Love Requires Imagination" thread to show why they are completely different things.

tomspug said:
The clear distinction, in my mind, is that there is love through words and love through action. What better way to demonstrate love than to sacrifice yourself for another person? In my mind, there is none, which is why Jesus points to it so fervently.

Don't you need a another qualifier to make your distinction meaningful? "Love through words and love through self-less action." Do you really think a mother's love for her child stops at words? Of course not. Yet, again referring to the Imagination thread, according to you a mother's love is not agape love.

Besides, words did seem important to Jesus: He wanted the agape form, and Peter kept saying the phileo form.

I wonder now if Peter's reticence had something to do with the fact that the agape form more typically referred to a spousal love, and it was strange to use it towards Jesus.
 

Sunstone

De Diablo Del Fora
Premium Member
Besides, words did seem important to Jesus: He wanted the agape form, and Peter kept saying the phileo form.

I wonder now if Peter's reticence had something to do with the fact that the agape form more typically referred to a spousal love, and it was strange to use it towards Jesus.

Some scholars dismiss that passage as most likely a fabricated conversation that never happened.
 

Falvlun

Earthbending Lemur
Premium Member
Some scholars dismiss that passage as most likely a fabricated conversation that never happened.

Well, then, the author still either a) made up their own definition or b) used the wrong form of love.:D

EDIT:
Or, rather, it doesn't really matter from the Christian perspective whether the exchange was fictional or not. They believe that it is real, and have created a concept of love based upon it.
 
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Oberon

Well-Known Member
Is it just me, or did the Christians flip the meanings of the words? Philia seems to me to be the more virtuous sort of love. Futhermore, the selflessness that is supposed to characterize agape love is completely missing from its actual Greek definition. In fact, agape love seems to be rather similiar to the common English definition of "love", though Christians seem to go through great pains to draw disimilarities between them. What gives?

"Agape" was not used much in classical greek (the nt was written in a later form known as koine), and neither was the associated verb "agapao." The ancient greeks tended to use "phileo" to describe non-erotic love of all sorts. Related words include "philia" or friendship, and "philos" or dear one, friend, etc.

"Agape" is best defined as "brotherly love" and is used far more in christain texts than anywhere else. The two words "philia and agape" do have a different connotation. "Agape" comes to refer specifically to christian love, and always had a more specific meaning than "philia" and related words.
 

Jedothek

New Member
Agape and Phileo are the same thing.

End of story.

Agape and Phileo are not the same thing.
First of all, agape is a noun and phileo is a verb.
So let us contrast agape and the noun philia.
Agape is love, brotherly love, charity, alms, and (in the plural, agapai) love -feast.
Philia is affectionate regard, friendship, friendliness, amiability, fondness, liking for, and the natural force which unites discordant elements and movements.
 
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