Unveiled Artist
Veteran Member
Sexual orientation is an orientation and not a behavior.
I know. I'm talking about "according to the Bible" not what we know now.
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Sexual orientation is an orientation and not a behavior.
There was no concept or definition of homo/heterosexual then. As we understand and know the concepts, they are so modern and new that even our understanding of heterosexual does not equally translate to the heterosexual that was known a couple hundred years ago.Can a straight person be homosexual and a gay person be heterosexual?
Does it make a difference?
BC definition not 21st century
There was no concept or definition of homo/heterosexual then. As we understand and know the concepts, they are so modern and new that even our understanding of heterosexual does not equally translate to the heterosexual that was known a couple hundred years ago.
So, the answer would be a confused yes and no. But mostly no because they just did not know those concepts or have an idea for them. It was just sex, there was no heteros or homos, just sex with men and sex with women.
They didn't really view it like that. No one was labeled or considered hetero or homo back then. People just had sex. This is why we see things like "lying with a woman" or "lies with a man as he would a woman." If someone who lived then--someone that today we would consider heterosexual--had sex with a man, they would just consider it to have had sex with a man. There would be no questioning of whether he is gay or bi. He lied with a man, nothing more.If homosexuality was a behavior back then (regardless if they knew it, used the word, or not) and to some it is seen like that today, couldn't a heterosexual person just turn homosexual if one has same-sex behavior and vis versa?
(This would ideally be answered from a believer's point of view; someone who believes homosexuality is a behavior and a sin and how they can apply the same logic for homosexuals with heterosexuals. Does it make a difference).
They didn't really view it like that. No one was labeled or considered hetero or homo back then. People just had sex. This is why we see things like "lying with a woman" or "lies with a man as he would a woman." If someone who lived then--someone that today we would consider heterosexual--had sex with a man, they would just consider it to have had sex with a man. There would be no questioning of whether he is gay or bi. He lied with a man, nothing more.
That depends entirely on the denomination, and probably individual church. Some see homosexuality as a weakness and sin, comparable to if someone is ill, making the labels a little more fluid and less fixed. Some accept hetero/homo sexual, as is commonly understood today, without the back and forth that you ask of because of the "common usage" they employ with the terms. And then some would deny the homosexual, denouncing it as an illness and demonic possession that doesn't exist without that corruption.Would a believer see it this way that heterosexuals can be homosexuals or is it only specific to homosexuals who choose to be based on his or her behavior as such?
IF, a proposed, homosexuality and heterosexuality are nothing but behavior then there is NO sexuality to differentiate and NO sexuality to be betrayed.
It doesn't matter what "perspective" you are coming from at all. You are confusing to quite different things -- behavior and orientation.If you're not a Christian who believes homosexuality is a sin, you won't get it unless seeing it from a hypothetical example.
In the Bible, homosexuality is a behavior (right or wrong is irrelevant; I can care less)
Today we know it's a sexual orientation.
According to the Bible, a heterosexual can turn homosexual and vis versa because behaviors are choices not related to someone's sexual orientation.
From a Christian view only.
Can a homosexual become hetero and vis versa
What you're saying is irrelevant to the question.
Right or wrong,your personal feelings about the issue, is irrelevant to this. It's not a personal question.
Well, it would be "according to the understanding of the biblical writers." "According to the bible" lends the texts an air of "infallibility" and authority that isn't warranted here.I know. I'm talking about "according to the Bible" not what we know now.
NO, although it is possible for a straight person to have sexual relations with a member of their own sex, and for a homosexual person to have sexual relations with a member of the opposite sex.
Well, it would be "according to the understanding of the biblical writers." "According to the bible" lends the texts an air of "infallibility" and authority that isn't warranted here.
According to the writers, human beings can engage in any number of sexual behaviors. But to them there was no "is" homo- or heterosexual. There was not that duality at all, or that designation. There were merely those men who had sex with men, and men who had sex with women. Men who had sex with men was frowned upon, not because it was a moral failing, but a cultural failing.So, I'd assume according to the writers, homosexuals can be heterosexuals and vis versa because behavior determines who is homosexual and heterosexual.
According to the writers, human beings can engage in any number of sexual behaviors. But to them there was no "is" homo- or heterosexual. There was not that duality at all, or that designation. There were merely those men who had sex with men, and men who had sex with women. Men who had sex with men was frowned upon, not because it was a moral failing, but a cultural failing.So, I'd assume according to the writers, homosexuals can be heterosexuals and vis versa because behavior determines who is homosexual and heterosexual.
According to the writers, human beings can engage in any number of sexual behaviors. But to them there was no "is" homo- or heterosexual. There was not that duality at all, or that designation. There were merely those men who had sex with men, and men who had sex with women. Men who had sex with men was frowned upon, not because it was a moral failing, but a cultural failing.
NO, although it is possible for a straight person to have sexual relations with a member of their own sex, and for a homosexual person to have sexual relations with a member of the opposite sex.
Still incorrect. A homosexual is a person who DESIRES sex with a person of their own gender. It is quite possible to engage in it for other reasons than desire. Money for example, as in the male prostitutes of ancient Greece. Phaedo of Elis was one such, and was a prostitute because he was a slave, and forced into it. Socrates actually bought the young man's freedom, so that he need prostitute no longer -- and he didn't. In fact, a by Plato is named after him, the Phaedo dialogue, which describes the last hours of Socrates' life.It's possible. The idea is like killing. You kill so they call you a killer. You have same sex sex they call you a homosexual. Therefore, heterosexuals who engage in same sex sex are homosexual.
Not. Today's context. I can't figure another example that's not sensitive in nature.
Still incorrect. A homosexual is a person who DESIRES sex with a person of their own gender. It is quite possible to engage in it for other reasons than desire. Money for example, as in the male prostitutes of ancient Greece. Phaedo of Elis was one such, and was a prostitute because he was a slave, and forced into it. Socrates actually bought the young man's freedom, so that he need prostitute no longer -- and he didn't. In fact, a by Plato is named after him, the Phaedo dialogue, which describes the last hours of Socrates' life.
And again, there have been young men in prison who have provided homosexual favours to stronger men in return for protection in very tough circumstances. Yes, some of them have been homosexual, but not all. And the men who used (and protected) them, generally came out of prison and headed straight back towards women. They were not homosexual, they were availing themselves of the only available "convenience."
I think we have to stop...you do not appear to be able to reason at anything other than a surface level, and that's not going to work in a discussion like this.A homosexual person is someone who is "attracted" to someone of their own gender. They/we don't desire people as in a magnet. It's specific to biological and physiological attraction. That's. It. Everything else: lust, sex, and all of that "could" be a result but that's not the orientation itself. Heterosexuals are still heterosexuals regardless if they desire sex or not. We (hetero/homo/etc) don't always want to have sex with people we are briefly attracted to.
I'm not sure where you got prostitutes from? relating to sexual orientation?
Homosexual favors?? homosexuality is not the appropriate word for any of this. Sexual orientation is not a behavior; so, what you're saying doesn't make sense.
According to the Bible, people CAN be whatever they choose.