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1v1 Watchmen and Prestor John: The Book of Abraham

Watchmen

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Prestor John, I hope we can have a civil one on one debate and discussion where we discuss the evidence for and against Joseph Smith's translation of the papyri that became the Book of Abraham. I am not aware of any compelling evidence for the Book of Abraham, and believe the only evidence devout members can truly point to is the "spirit" telling them it is true. I now rely on the actual evidence and expert opinion - not the mystical spirit, which I believe is nothing more than self-affirmation of pre-existing beliefs.

I'll start with the facsimiles we were discussing in the other thread. Of course "facsimile" means Joseph copied the images from something else. What he had to work with were incomplete images, and it was necessary for Joseph to complete the images for his facsimiles. For example, the head of the "priest" above the alter is missing. Joseph filled in a human head, but numerous burial papyri subsequently discovered consistently show the head of a jackal - a clear depiction of Anubis. Why was Joseph wrong about completing the image? The translation and interpretation of the images is also incorrect. These issues exist in both facsimile 1 and 2.

I know prophets are not infallible. But why was Joseph wrong about his completion of the images, and his translation of the text and images? If you don't believe Joseph was wrong about these things, please explain why not.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Hi Watchmen and Prestor John : I’d like to make some suggestions regarding your debate :

1) Since it is a “one-on-one” debate you two want to have, I suggest you move it to the General Debates area under the “one-on-one” debates.


2) Secondly, If you are going to have a "historical discussion", why not make it an authentic "historical discussion"?

Since the facsimile is not the source papyri that became the book of Abraham, as Watchmen already pointed out in prior discussion, and since Watchmen says he is “not aware of any compelling evidence for the Book of Abramam” (the facsimile is a picture example a very small portion of a larger book, much as a "dick and Jane book" displays dick falling down a hill) Instead of cutting and pasting from repeated failed debates on this subject (even the premise is based on a "cut and paste"), why not attempt an objective and historically accurate discussion that has a chance of educating someone with authentic historical information? One that can come to an authentic and meaningful conclusion? To do this, you are going to have to pick an authentic historical basis for comparison of Smiths story.

For example, No other book of Abraham was known at the time Joseph Smith produced his. In the late 1890s one was found (the Slavice Apocalypse of Abraham) and translated into German and thence, into English. Thus you have a perfectly good, ancient, and historically objective and certifiably ancient book of Abraham to compare with Joseph Smiths' version.

Such a comparison can demonstrate as to whether there is matching, restored theology, or not.

Your current premise cannot prove either side correct since you are unable to use any Egyptian source to prove a Hebraism correct or not. NO such conclusion can be made if you will not use correct historical principles. It is like looking at a French poem and concluding it is terrible Spanish.

The problem with discussions about faulty premises using faulty historical premises about faulty data that create faulty conclusions
For example, readers have already seen that none of the Egyptian specialists agree on even the first symbol labeled in the facsimile. Watchmen himself, gave us the incorrect interpretation of the simple first symbol. A symbol that is incorrectly interpreted cannot then be applied as a standard for a correct translation. This is another advantage of using the known and objective and quite historical Apocalype of Abraham or other known ancient documents as a standard for testing. This is good historical research. What you two are attempting cannot come to any conclusion as the many, many, many examples of other historians who have tried it have shown.

3) If you decide to use an authentic historical comparisons, you and readers can learn about authentic history and what authentic data reveals

Watchmen claims to believe that the “only evidence member can truly point to is the “spirit”. If you “skew” the test to fail, then it still proves nothing about objective evidence existing. Why don’t you USE objective historical evidence that exists and then compare the known historical and proven Apocalypse of Abraham to Smiths Book of Abraham. You CAN prove something with an objective test, but you CANNOT prove something with a bogus and “set up” test that only has the façade of objective history.


4) If you are going to rely on evidence and opinion, then seek actual authentic evidence and authentic and reliable "expert opinion" on a subject rather than argue for arguments sake

Watchmen claims he now relies “on the actual evidence” and “expert opinion” for these historical issues. Why not actually discuss actual evidence and evidence that actually HAS known expert opinion. As shown, none of the “experts” on Egyptian even agreed on the Egyptian they were unable to evaluate as hebraisms.

The egyptian experts are looking at egyptian. They cannot tell you about a hebraism or hebraic story in hebraic idiom. Why not look at hebraic sources?

The problem with avoiding placing hebraisms into their correct historical context is that regardless of the language they appear in, that they may not be correct unless placed in their original context.

For example, when Nephi calls individuals “ye uncircumcised of heart”. It is a Hebraism. It is not correct modern english idiom. If I say to a friend “Jim, you are really uncircumcised of lips.” It is poor English and he may not know what in the world I am saying. If I tell a teen-age son : “John, you are uncircumcised of ears!”, similarly he may assume I meant something else since the phrase doesn’t make sense in English. However these are all perfectly good Hebrew.

The Hebrew term ערל (Ahrael) does mean uncircumcised, but it also means “profane”. I can describe someone as . aral se’fata’yim (uncirmcumcized of lips, meaning dull of speech, hesitating or stammering speech or profane speech, depending upon the context. However I cannot generally use the phrase in English and retain accurate meaning. In context of profane or profanity, one can use the term to refer to the ear (i.e. listening to profame music) or to the heart (thinking profane thoughts or unbelieving) or to the lips (referring to profane speech). When david speaks of Goliath as “this uncircumcised philistine" David was not speaking of somehow knowing Goliath had no foreskin. When Isaiah speaks of Jerusalem, the holy city and says “henceforth there shall no more come into thee the uncircumcised and the unclean” he is not speaking of only Jews entering. He is simply using a doublet. Circumcision, in this case, means unclean (the profane and unholy). (Isaiah 52:1)

The point is, your debate about what is “good Egyptian” has nothing to do with a group of hebraisms using Egyptian symbology. If you say a hebraism is "bad egyptian" the historian will reply, "so what? it's not egyptian, it is hebraic!". Similarly, your debate efforts will be wasted unless you place your debate and it’s elements on some sort of objective historical context rather than continue to debate outside of historical context.

Whether you take my advice to first create an objective historical basis for your debate or whether the debate, as formed will simply be an exercise in cutting and pasting irrelavent points from prior debates without containing your own thoughts, Still, I hope you both have good spiritual journeys and don’t wind up spending your time and efforts on irrelevant and discontexted historical claims rather than relevant and contextually accurate ones. See you two


Clear
τζτωω
 
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Prestor John

Well-Known Member
Joseph filled in a human head, but numerous burial papyri subsequently discovered consistently show the head of a jackal - a clear depiction of Anubis. Why was Joseph wrong about completing the image?
Why do you assume that the facsimiles should be exactly similar to those Egyptian burial papyri?

Have you not considered the differences between the person lying on the altar in the facsimile and the one from those other Egyptian funerary papyri?

Why can't those differences be proof that the one obtained by Joseph Smith was different than those other Egyptian burial papyri?
The translation and interpretation of the images is also incorrect.
This argument is based on the assumption that the facsimiles are the same as the depictions on the Egyptian burial papyri.

I see no reason to assume this and Clear has brought up many reasons for why no one should assume they are.
I know prophets are not infallible.
Your constant and stringent scrutiny of the Prophet makes me doubt that you actually believe this.
But why was Joseph wrong about his completion of the images, and his translation of the text and images?
This conclusion is based on assumptions that I believe are false.
 

Watchmen

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Why do you assume that the facsimiles should be exactly similar to those Egyptian burial papyri?

Have you not considered the differences between the person lying on the altar in the facsimile and the one from those other Egyptian funerary papyri?

Why can't those differences be proof that the one obtained by Joseph Smith was different than those other Egyptian burial papyri?
This argument is based on the assumption that the facsimiles are the same as the depictions on the Egyptian burial papyri.

I see no reason to assume this and Clear has brought up many reasons for why no one should assume they are.

Your constant and stringent scrutiny of the Prophet makes me doubt that you actually believe this.

This conclusion is based on assumptions that I believe are false.
Can you show me the differences you're referring to? Doesn't it make more sense that such slight variations are just variations among burial papyri rather than related to The Book of Abraham? Are you aware of any modern experts who agree with Joseph Smith's interpretation of the facsimile?
 

Prestor John

Well-Known Member
Can you show me the differences you're referring to?
FairMormon has a pretty good list of what is different about the papyri had by the Prophet and other "lion couch" scenes:

"Although many similar lion couch scenes exist, this one has quite a few unique features:

  • No other lion couch scene shows the figure on the couch (Osiris) with both hands raised. (There is a dispute regarding whether or not two hands are represented. See below)
  • No other lion couch scenes show the figure lying on the couch clothed in the manner shown in Facsimile 1. In most other lion couch scenes, the reclining figure is either completely nude or fully wrapped like a mummy. There is one known scene in which the figure is wearing a loin cloth. None to date show the type of clothing being worn by the figure in Facsimile 1.
  • No other lion couch scenes to date have shown the reclining figure wearing anklets or foot coverings.
  • No other lion couch scenes show a crocodile beneath the couch.
  • The original of Facsimile 1 shows the couch behind the priest's legs, and the reclining figure's legs are shown in front of the priest's. The figure was transferred on to the woodcut prior to publication in the Times and Seasons. The wood cut attempted to correct this odd perspective by placing the legs of the priest behind the lion couch.
  • No other such scenes have hatched lines such as those designated as "Expanse" or "Firmament" in Facsimile 1.
  • No other such scenes are known to have the twelve gates or pillars of heaven or anything like them.
  • No other such scenes show a lotus and an offering table. These items are common in other Egyptian scenes, but do not appear in the lion couch scene."
https://www.fairmormon.org/answers/..._1_common_and_similar_to_other_such_scenes.3F

I have seen two other lion couch scenes that look similar to the facsimile, but they are other attempts at "restoring" the original image, so they don't exist anywhere else.
Doesn't it make more sense that such slight variations are just variations among burial papyri rather than related to The Book of Abraham?
That is a reasonable question, but when it comes to the facsimile in the Book of Abraham we enter into the realms of "never" and "only".

The facsimile in the Book of Abraham shows some things that have "never" been shown in any other known lion couch scene.

The facsimile in the Book of Abraham is the "only" known lion couch scene with these differences.

It is unique among lion couch scenes and wouldn't a scene drawn by Abraham the Hebrew by just that unique?

If this is the only lion couch scene drawn by Abraham the Hebrew, doesn't it make sense that it would be different and that attempts to decipher it as a completely "Egyptian" account would be lacking?
Are you aware of any modern experts who agree with Joseph Smith's interpretation of the facsimile?
No, but I would not discredit the Prophet just because our current "experts" disagree with him.

He has been proving the "experts" wrong for many decades, so I don't consider their criticism of him to be damning.
 
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Watchmen

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
So your premise is that Joseph correctly interpreted the papyri based on a lion couch scene?
 

Prestor John

Well-Known Member
So your premise is that Joseph correctly interpreted the papyri based on a lion couch scene?
Your premise has been that the Prophet incorrectly filled in the incomplete lion couch scene depicted on the papyri in his possession based on a comparison to other known lion couch scenes.

However, pointing out the inconsistencies between the unaltered scene had by the Prophet and all other known lion couch scenes combats this premise.

This lion couch scene being significantly different from all other known lion couch scenes adds credence to the Prophet's claim that the papyri was unique. Possibly written by Abraham's own hand.

This also means that there is no real comparison between this papyri and other Egyptian funerary scrolls.

So, in a nutshell, you have yet to present any actual evidence against the Prophet's translation in this thread.
 

Watchmen

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Your premise has been that the Prophet incorrectly filled in the incomplete lion couch scene depicted on the papyri in his possession based on a comparison to other known lion couch scenes.

However, pointing out the inconsistencies between the unaltered scene had by the Prophet and all other known lion couch scenes combats this premise.

This lion couch scene being significantly different from all other known lion couch scenes adds credence to the Prophet's claim that the papyri was unique. Possibly written by Abraham's own hand.

This also means that there is no real comparison between this papyri and other Egyptian funerary scrolls.

So, in a nutshell, you have yet to present any actual evidence against the Prophet's translation in this thread.
Wrong. I'll get back to you.
 
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