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Us? Our?

Corban

Member
Gen 1:26 says "let US make man in OUR image". Gen 3:22 says "and the LORD God said, behold the man is become as one of US"
why are the plural words used when God speaks, who is the US, referred to?
 

Lightkeeper

Well-Known Member
The NIV Bible states that in Gen 1:26 God is speaking as Creator King and is "announcing his crowning work to the members of his heavenly court." Could he have been talking to Satan?
 

Corban

Member
Lightkeeper said:
The NIV Bible states that in Gen 1:26 God is speaking as Creator King and is "announcing his crowning work to the members of his heavenly court." Could he have been talking to Satan?


My only problem with that, i will lighlty address and will later post a topic so it can be adequately examined. i take occasion with use of the NIV, I prefer to dring water at the source not downstream when it has been handled by ignorant translators. 2 Peter 1:20 "knowing this first that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation." who are these translotors of the NIV, why should i listen to their private interpretation?
 

jay1_z

Member
No one knows for sure who God is refering to when he says "Us". Some believe that he was speaking to Jesus because Jesus was there at the beginning of everything. Others believe that God was speaking like a king. Kings sometimes spoke in this manner when they were really speaking about themselves or their rulership. Just something that I heard.
 

maxpower

Member
jay1_z said:
No one knows for sure who God is refering to when he says "Us". Some believe that he was speaking to Jesus because Jesus was there at the beginning of everything. Others believe that God was speaking like a king. Kings sometimes spoke in this manner when they were really speaking about themselves or their rulership. Just something that I heard.

-so do you believe God the Father and Jesus are two seperate beings?
 

Lightkeeper

Well-Known Member
Abingdon Bible Commentary, suggests that the "us-our" could be a relic of old polytheistic phraseology and the writer didn't catch it.
 

Corban

Member
Lightkeeper said:
Abingdon Bible Commentary, suggests that the "us-our" could be a relic of old polytheistic phraseology and the writer didn't catch it.


But if you start picking apart the Bible like that how can you believe any of it. I could take any verse I didn't agree with and say the writer probably didn't catch that. Remember 2 Peter 1:20
 

anders

Well-Known Member
There is a special type of plural in Hebrew (and lots of other languages) that has a plural form even though it is numerically singular with a singular verb and singular adjective. These nouns are called majestic plurals. The meaning of the plural suffix in the majestic plural is not that there is more than one of the noun, but that the noun is "great, absolute, or majestic". In Gen. 1:26 the verb is in the plural, also because it refers to the introductory "Elohim" (God), which has the majestic plural form.

It is slightly more complicated in Gen. 1:1, which in Hebrew clearly states "... the two heavens ...", and yet there is very little discussion on why there were two. Out of 14 translations I checked, 10 versions write one heaven, and only three make them two. The Arabic translation follows the Hebrew text and has two.

As always, what matters is the overall message, not the separate jots and tittles.
 

Lightkeeper

Well-Known Member
Corban said:
Lightkeeper said:
Abingdon Bible Commentary, suggests that the "us-our" could be a relic of old polytheistic phraseology and the writer didn't catch it.
This is not a debate forum. You asked what "us-our" meant and I gave you some possible answers from sited works.

But if you start picking apart the Bible like that how can you believe any of it. I could take any verse I didn't agree with and say the writer probably didn't catch that. Remember 2 Peter 1:20

This is not a debate forum. You asked what "US-OUR" meant and I cited two works on the subject.
 

Corban

Member
"This is not a debate forum. You asked what "US-OUR" meant and I cited two works on the subject.[/quote]"


the greatest learning must allow for questions. if this is truly an educational forum we should be able to question the things that are said, not in the spirit of debate, i am not trying to prove you wrong, but in the spirit of education, your answer had holes that needed clarifying
 
I was equally confused by this translation Corban. I am a pastor's kid in the Lutheran Church-Missouri Synod and my dad said that the NIV has quite a few translation errors in it. I can only suspect that this is one of them.
 

Lightkeeper

Well-Known Member
Corban said:
"This is not a debate forum. You asked what "US-OUR" meant and I cited two works on the subject.
"


the greatest learning must allow for questions. if this is truly an educational forum we should be able to question the things that are said, not in the spirit of debate, i am not trying to prove you wrong, but in the spirit of education, your answer had holes that needed clarifying

It wasn't my answer. Don't shoot the messanger.
 

Lightkeeper

Well-Known Member
LCMS Sprecher said:
I was equally confused by this translation Corban. I am a pastor's kid in the Lutheran Church-Missouri Synod and my dad said that the NIV has quite a few translation errors in it. I can only suspect that this is one of them.

If you want to debate the NIV Bible, then start a topic in the Religious debate section.
 
Didn't mean to start a debate. Just throwing it out there that this could be a translation error. I am not against the NIV (I use it as my primary Bible), however it has been known to have translation problems. I do not mean to call into question its validity.
 
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