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Why is the 'Title' "CHRIST" Used as a 'Personal' Name?

xexon

Destroyer of Worlds
In those days, no.

People often took their birth name and joined it with what area they were from.

There were not that many people in the world at that time so it worked rather well.


x
 

A. Ben-Shema

Active Member
And while we are at it, didn't anyone dipicted in the Bible have a last name?

In those times people were referred to simply as a son / daughter of their father (i.e. son/daughter of Joseph) perhaps also, in addition, the father's profession (son/daughter of Joseph the carpenter).

This is also the origin of English names like Johnson (i.e. son of John), etc, and Smith (blacksmith), Taylor, Baker, Butcher, etc.

Peace & Love :)

 

A. Ben-Shema

Active Member
Christ is a title. So is "Mister", or "My Lord" or "Tovarishch" for that matter.

Regards,
Scott

That is precisely my point - IT IS A TITLE - NOT A PERSONAL NAME!

A title may be common to many! However, a personal name refers to ONE individual. The title Messiah / Christ is applicable to many, and is often used in the OT of various different people! But our English translations of these OT passages don't say Messiah or Christ, they translate it as: ANNOINTED! (e.g. the Lord's anointed one).

Why the inconsistency? Quite simply, because the religious authorities do not want to admit that there has been more than one Christ / Messiah!!!

This is the whole point of this thread!

Peace & Love :)

 

Popeyesays

Well-Known Member
That is precisely my point - IT IS A TITLE - NOT A PERSONAL NAME!

A title may be common to many! However, a personal name refers to ONE individual. The title Messiah / Christ is applicable to many, and is often used in the OT of various different people! But our English translations of these OT passages don't say Messiah or Christ, they translate it as: ANNOINTED! (e.g. the Lord's anointed one).

Why the inconsistency? Quite simply, because the religious authorities do not want to admit that there has been more than one Christ / Messiah!!!

This is the whole point of this thread!

Peace & Love :)

Well, I believe the title 'Moissach' is a specific one. It is affixed to the personage of Jesus (since i believe that jesus is indeed that Messiah)

However, I do not think it is a general term for all the Bearers of Revelations direct from God.

Each of those Revealors has His own identity and is at the same time in Unity with all the Other Revealors.

Which new Manifestation is out there for us now? Are your touting one of the Maitreyas? Or a particular new and hitherto unnamed manifestation of God.

Why is this Manifestation of God so cowardly?

Regards,
Scott
 

Booko

Deviled Hen
That is precisely my point - IT IS A TITLE - NOT A PERSONAL NAME!

<snip>

Why the inconsistency? Quite simply, because the religious authorities do not want to admit that there has been more than one Christ / Messiah!!!

This is the whole point of this thread!

Funny, in my experience the "religious authorities" are the very people who were well aware that Christ is a title, and were engaged in educating their parishoners on the matter.

If the laity don't generally realize it's a title, perhaps it's because they did not have the time or means to attend seminary.

Sorry, but I don't see any conspiracy here any more than I see Latvian Intelligence Officers in Grayling, Michigan.

(could someone please pass me a bowl of FEMA Death Camp gruel? Oh...thanks much.)
 

Booko

Deviled Hen
Well, I believe the title 'Moissach' is a specific one. It is affixed to the personage of Jesus (since i believe that jesus is indeed that Messiah)

However, I do not think it is a general term for all the Bearers of Revelations direct from God.

If it were, I should wonder why no one applied the title to Moses. (Oh, Jay, have some fun with that! :D)

Which new Manifestation is out there for us now? Are your touting one of the Maitreyas? Or a particular new and hitherto unnamed manifestation of God.

Why is this Manifestation of God so cowardly?

Now now, Scott. It may be premature to assume cowardice is at work. After all, some of the prophets knew their mission years before they acknowledged it openly.

But then...if that were so...I don't suppose the minions would be coming on a forum to proclaim it either. Hm...there's a thought.

I didn't think the various Maitreya claimants had any connection with gnosticism, but you never know.
 

may

Well-Known Member
Why do Christians mistakenly use the Hebrew title Messiah (i.e. Gk. "Christ" = anointed one) as a personal "surname" of Yehoshua (ben-Yosef, or 'Joshua' son of Joseph)?

Also, why is he not referred to by the correctly transliterated name "Joshua" - which is the standard tranliteration into English of Yehoshua???

Any ideas?

Peace & Love :)

(Josh´u·a) [shortened form of Jehoshua, meaning "Jehovah Is Salvation"].
The name Jesus (Gr., I·e·sous´) corresponds to the Hebrew name Jeshua (or, in fuller form, Jehoshua), meaning "Jehovah Is Salvation." The name itself was not unusual, many men being so named in that period. For this reason persons often added further identification, saying, "Jesus the Nazarene." (Mr 10:47; Ac 2:22) Christ is from the Greek Khri·stos´, the equivalent of the Hebrew Ma·shi´ach (Messiah), and means "Anointed One." Whereas the expression "anointed one" was properly applied to others before Jesus, such as Moses, Aaron, and David (Heb 11:24-26; Le 4:3; 8:12; 2Sa 22:51), the position, office, or service to which these were anointed only prefigured the superior position, office, and service of Jesus Christ. Jesus is therefore preeminently and uniquely "the Christ, the Son of the living God."—Mt 16:16;
 

A. Ben-Shema

Active Member
Christ is from the Greek Khri·stos´, the equivalent of the Hebrew Ma·shi´ach (Messiah), and means "Anointed One." Whereas the expression "anointed one" was properly applied to others before Jesus, such as Moses, Aaron, and David (Heb 11:24-26; Le 4:3; 8:12; 2Sa 22:51), the position, office, or service to which these were anointed only prefigured the superior position, office, and service of Jesus Christ. Jesus is therefore preeminently and uniquely "the Christ, the Son of the living God."—Mt 16:16;

Two questions:
1). You correctly say:
the expression "anointed one" was properly applied to (many) others before Jesus, therefore, as "anointed one" clearly means 'Messiah', these others were actually Messiahs too - Yes? Even Melchizedek, who is not actually called a Messiah, could well be such from the descriptions we have of him - No? See below:

Heb 7:1-4 "This Melchizedek was King of Salem (= 'Peace') and Priest of God Most High. He met Abraham returning from the defeat of the kings and blessed him, and Abraham gave him a tenth of everything. First, his name means 'King of Righteousness'; then also, 'King of Salem' which means “King of Peace.” Without father or mother, without genealogy, without beginning of days or end of life, like the Son of God he (Melchizedek) remains a Priest forever. Just think how great he was: Even the patriarch Abraham gave him a tenth of his takings!"

2). You then said:
the position, office, or service to which these (other OT men) were anointed only prefigured the superior position, office, and service of Jesus Christ. Jesus is therefore preeminently and uniquely "the Christ, the Son of the living God."

Isn't this statement merely the biased dogma of 'blind' so-called 'orthodoxy' coming through? How can anyone pass such judgment on people like Melchizedek or Moses - saying they were in ant way inferior to Jesus? Of course Christians will place Jesus on a pedestal above all others, just as the Mandaeans place John the Baptist above Jesus, and so on. It is like the immature mentality of children, who proclaim that 'their' dad is better than anyone else's! :drool:

When are we going to grow up and realize that God continually sends Spiritual Teachers to Earth for our benefit, AND THEY ALL HAVE EQUAL AUTHORITY! :yes:

Peace & Love :)


 

may

Well-Known Member
Two questions:
1). You correctly say: the expression "anointed one" was properly applied to (many) others before Jesus, therefore, as "anointed one" clearly means 'Messiah', these others were actually Messiahs too - Yes? Even Melchizedek, who is not actually called a Messiah, could well be such from the descriptions we have of him - No? See below:

Heb 7:1-4 "This Melchizedek was King of Salem (= 'Peace') and Priest of God Most High. He met Abraham returning from the defeat of the kings and blessed him, and Abraham gave him a tenth of everything. First, his name means 'King of Righteousness'; then also, 'King of Salem' which means “King of Peace.” Without father or mother, without genealogy, without beginning of days or end of life, like the Son of God he (Melchizedek) remains a Priest forever. Just think how great he was: Even the patriarch Abraham gave him a tenth of his takings!"

2). You then said: the position, office, or service to which these (other OT men) were anointed only prefigured the superior position, office, and service of Jesus Christ. Jesus is therefore preeminently and uniquely "the Christ, the Son of the living God."

Isn't this statement merely the biased dogma of 'blind' so-called 'orthodoxy' coming through? How can anyone pass such judgment on people like Melchizedek or Moses - saying they were in ant way inferior to Jesus? Of course Christians will place Jesus on a pedestal above all others, just as the Mandaeans place John the Baptist above Jesus, and so on. It is like the immature mentality of children, who proclaim that 'their' dad is better than anyone else's! :drool:

When are we going to grow up and realize that God continually sends Spiritual Teachers to Earth for our benefit, AND THEY ALL HAVE EQUAL AUTHORITY! :yes:

Peace & Love :)
where a forerunner has entered in our behalf, Jesus, who has become a high priest according to the manner of Mel·chiz´e·dek forever.HEBREWS 6;20
because he has been specifically called by God a high priest according to the manner of Mel·chiz´e·dek.HEBREWS 5;10
Like Melchizedek, who served as king-priest in Abraham’s day, the coming Seed would have a direct appointment from God to serve as King and Priest!—Genesis 14:17-20.
 

A. Ben-Shema

Active Member
where a forerunner has entered in our behalf, Jesus, who has become a high priest according to the manner of Mel·chiz´e·dek forever.HEBREWS 6;20
because he has been specifically called by God a high priest according to the manner of Mel·chiz´e·dek.HEBREWS 5;10
Like Melchizedek, who served as King-Priest in Abraham’s day, the coming Seed (i.e. succession) would have a direct appointment from God to serve as King and Priest!—Genesis 14:17-20.

Yes indeed.:yes:

Peace & Love :)
 
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