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MaddLlama said:Now you're just avoiding the question. What are you afraid of?
Have you verified the translation of every passage in the Bible yourself?
Apple Pie said:Please dont debase yourself down to this level...
Just reply to the question posed to you.
MaddLlama said:Why won't you answer my question? It's requires only a simple answer.
You said that the only way to know if a translation is accurate is to verify its original language rather than just accept the translation given to you.
So, I want to know if you have personally verified the original language and english translation of every book of the Bible, or if you simply accept the translation.
Please don't embarass yourself by dismissing my question.
Apple Pie said:Our question was is queue long before yours...
MaddLlama said:Isn't that a little immature?
Have you verified the translation of the Bible for yourself before you accept what it says?
Apple Pie said:When you can answer the questions in the order in which they are served...then, you will have your answer...
Till then....
love said:I don't know how this thread turned into which version of the Bible is correct. I prefer the King James version. It is english but has a more poetic sound compared to my modern southern language. Are Muslims required to read the 4 Gospels?
DreGod07 said:KJV and NIV are widely accepted version (Translations) of the bible.
I will read from multiple versions...KJV, NIV and NWT...I also use hebrew..and Greek to english lexicons...My wife is fluent in latin and spanish so some things i may have trouble with she will help me.
The muslims i know do read the OT.....Although the 4 gospels differ through the opinions or perception of the authors of the NT (matt, mark, luke & john)...the muslims I know will read them.....although they seem to not accept the NT....
Apple Pie said:This thread revolves around 4.171 and that it states that Jesus is the Son.
Further, there are several mainstream renderings which also state the same.
This is fact.
Apple Pie said:3.59 states that Jesus was not created...
Full exegesis is here...
http://www.wikiislam.com/wiki/Jesus_was_not_created
Apple Pie said:All verbs in sura 112 are in the imperfect tense....there is no denial of Jesus being the Son in the past...only that there will be no more in the present or future....
Apple Pie said:9.31 includes Jesus as deity via the usage of "wa" in the prepositional phrase...
DreGod07 said:It's a fact that they translated it that way. If this is the version you choose to accept then that is on you. While they are mainstram they are not widely accepted and they are highly scrutanized and criticized. This is fact...Review the links i posted.
your wiki won't due. This has already been discussed in another forum.
Sorry....Read It Again....
He begets NOT (He has no children)
NOR is HE BEGOTTEN (Nor is he a child of)
As short as 112 is..it is the perfect example that;
1.) Allah is the one and only God
2 Allah has no children
3.) There is no one like Allah
Simple and clear...regardless of what you say. Nothing in one twelve mentions Isa....It clearly states Allah has no chilldren.
Not sure How you conclude 30 and 31 as testifying to deity of Isa. In 3o it says this is what the christians say and in 31 it, (ONCE AGAIN) calls Isa the SON OF MARY (waalmaseehaibna maryama)
Apple Pie said:The Literal rendering is not our rendering.
It comes from one of your fellow Muslim brothers.
He renders the passage....Jesus is his Son.
Try again...
Apple Pie said:Freeminds is another Muslim owned and operated organization.
They also render the passage....Jesus is his Son.
Keep trying.
Apple Pie said:No mention of 4.171 being "inaccurrate"...
Surely as "thoroughly" as the fellow Muslims have scrutinized it, they failed to make mention of 4.171...?
DreGod07 said:Yea... but I didn't have to show that...It was enough that others showed his many inaccuracies which renders his translation useless. Why woould I need to go further??
Apple Pie said:Again...
Where does it state that 4.171 to be in error in any fashion whatsoever?
You have nothing.
Apple Pie said:Which version do you, yourself believe in...?
Where...?
Apple Pie said:Let's look...
اتخذوا أحبارهم ورهبنهم أربابا من دون الله
والمسيح ابن مريم وما أمروا إلا ليعبدوا إلها
وحدا لا إله إلا هو سبحنه عما يشركون
Ittakhathoo ahbarahum waruhbanahum arbaban min dooni Allahi waalmaseeha ibna maryama wama omiroo illa liyaAAbudoo ilahan wahidan la ilaha illa huwa subhanahu AAamma yushrikoona
9.31 They have taken their learned persons and their monks (as) lords from superior (to) allah and The Messiah, Mary's Son; and they commanded not except that they may worship one god, no god except He, glory be to Him from what they associate partners.
The Messiah is included along with allah via the copulative conjunction wa, as being part and parcel of the prepositional phrase initiating with min (from).
Apple Pie said:You will see the modern English translators deceitfully butchering this text by inserting all sorts of add-on-words in parenthesis in order to make this ayah conform to the Islamic paradigm.
Apple Pie said:Fact of the matter is that this ayah proclaims Jesus Christ as God Almighty.
Apple Pie said:
DreGod07 said:I DIDN'T HAVE TO SHOW THIS FROM THAT SCHOLAR......!!!!
Others had already shown the many inaccuracies from that scholar..... To disprove that scholar any further would be futile and a waste of time.
Apple Pie said:Actually...
You have not been able to google one single solitary shred of evidence that refuts that Jesus is his Son...in 4.171...
Keep googling...
Apple Pie said:Since you now study the original languages...let's pose this question to you...and see if the outcome is the same.
Which rendering do you adhere to....?
The classic Arabic rendering which states that Jesus is his Son...or....the popular renderings which state that he is not the Son...?
DreGod07 said:I took your classical arabic quote to a couple of my friends who are native arabic speaking. One of them almost didn't know what it was because it lacked the vowels. He was still able to read it. He told me at first glance he thought it was a dialect of arabic but realized it was the classic writing.
He read it..start to finish.... and asked me "so what was my question?"
I said read it again and tell me if there is anything wrong.... He did. He said there was nothing wrong. I asked him to comapare it to his quran and read it again.. He did.
He asked me again.....what was my question..... I said to him I can clearly hear you reading it quite different..... He said to me it was because the classic arabic did have the markings that modern arabic does so when he was reading the classic he could not stop or pause.
He explained to me that a native arabic speaking person will find this hard to do because the flow is not the same. He explained to me that when the classic was written....It was written from those who had memorized the quran.
He told me to think of it as an english run on sentence. He said it doesn't make sense to read it that way because the whole verse gets garbled as if it was one sentence. He said this would make it difficult to recite back to another arabic speaking person beacause it would seem like it was information overload. He also explained that there are other verses that are much longer in the quran and to try and recite them in one breath would be extremely difficult or impossible and it would come off as incoherent to the listener.
Now my other friend is a teacher of math at a local high school. i met with her today. She is very familiar with the classic arabic. she said it was something her father had her to read as she was growing up. She as well stated the same thing that the verses seemed to keep going and almost not making sense to her until her farther told her she had to read it slower and she would understand it. she said it's pretty much a necessity to read the verse in a sentence style because the followers of Muhammed committed the quran to memory and would have been easier to remember it complete with no breaks. How they wrote it and how they spoke it was two totally different things. She told me that yes...as it is written apppears to be the way they remembered it and wrote it down that way..but to read it straight through wouldn't make sense..... and that's why the breaks were added by the followers of Muhammed later on.
The kicker to me wasn't all of that....because I knew that....The kicker was when I showed both of them the debate we all have been having and they both were confused as to why you were translating it that way. My one friend Jenny said you appear to be taking a piece but quoting out of context with a lack of understanding as how to read the quran.... She wen't on and on pulling out verses of Isa Ibn Maryiam...I said that I agree.
My other frinend David just said you were and idiot.... I just laughed.....but I didn't agree with him....Although I normally side with Jenny...since she has a better background in the classic than David...
Again, I think I'm gonna stick with them and the scholars on this. We will continue to go in circles on this issue....... It will never end I believe...
It's just you and I now......but I'm moving on to some other threads....But I look forward in seeing your post on scrutanizing the Bible....I'm so in when you start questioning the inaccuracies of the Bible.....