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Why did God create homosexuality?

oldbadger

Skanky Old Mongrel!
The Israelites needed to grow fast and quickly.
All the laws were about strength, health, cohesion and security.

The laws required couples to wed, produce offspring and stay together. They even got their first year of marriage free of duties for that very purpose.

Sex outside of marriage could cause sickness, so adultery was outlawed and homosexuality was banned for the same reason and also because gay couples don't get kids.

Today we don't need to so many kids.
Homophobic folks need to get with the times.
 

danieldemol

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
You are deceived brother, there is a wealth of evidence supporting the Bible. I myself have been wading through it for about 6 months now. All you have to do is look for it and be objective. If you enter into it with your decision already made you will miss the truth
Hah, allegedly six months worth of evidence and you didn't provide a scrap of it in your reply, instead you just contented yourself with a tall claim, which is what I have come to expect from Christians.

In my opinion.
 

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
When did I ever say that God does not exist? I never said that so that is the biggest strawman of all.
In fact, what I have been saying is that I not only believe that God exists, I know that God exists.

I guess you did not comprehend what I said. I said that proof does not make God exist, because God could exist and not provide any proof at all. God did provide proof only because of His love for us, not because we deserve proof.

I only merit corrections from God, I merit no corrections from you because you are not God.

It is not a strawman argument unless I deliberately misrepresented your position. I did no such thing.

You are perfectly welcome to correct anything I said that you believe misrepresented your position, just as I did above. That is what people do if they believe they have been misrepresented.

Reading comprehension and logical fallacy fail. You refuse to reason rationally so you won't let yourself.see your error.

By the way,this belief of yours,that homosexuality is immoral is evidence against the existence of your god.
 

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
You are trying to prove to him what his psychology is, so you are trying to prove something. I did a little of that myself, trying to show him how he was judging me while I wasn't judging homosexuals. It had no impression on him, at least it appeared that way. Who knows what impression it really made.
Oh I am judging you. I am not a hypocrite. You did judge homosexuals. You denied it a d then you did so again today. You cannot see how your beliefs fail and deny that you judged others. That is why you fail when you try to analyze others.
 

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
Psychoanalysis is what comes naturally to me because psychology was my field. :);)
Then you really should try it on yourself some day. You constantly accuse others of your flaws.

You may be able to think rationally outside of your faith. But once your religious beliefs are involved you become as bad as any creationist.
 

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
Obviously penises were made for vaginas because that is what guarantees the continuation of the species.
I think that is what God had in mind even though some humans had other things in mind.

You must have taken a biology class or two. Your poor reasoning indicates that you have not. Both penises and vaginas are the product of evolution. They evolved together. And the evolution of each relied upon the evolution of the other. That doesn't mean that they were made for each other.
 

viole

Ontological Naturalist
Premium Member
No, infertility is not an impediment to marriage or to being able to have natural marital relations open to life (not being able to do a thing at all and not being able for the thing to be productive are two different things), although impotence is. Impotence being a psychological or physical inability to have sex at all (like a guy who got his genitals torn off can't marry in the Church, although if that happens after he is married he will remain married but just be impotent).
Homosexuality is not an impediment to marriage, either. At least in civilised countries. And usually, in a sterile married couple, only one is sterile. So, according to church logic, if any, it should condemn the fertile one. Is that correct?

Anyway, I have a related question, which is creating quite a fuss here in Central Europe among Catholics. Why does the church forbid blessing to gays, but not to, say, people who use contraception? And why does it refute that simple gesture, while it has no problem to bless weapons? Or war ships?

NB: I am not challenging the morality of the church here. I am aware that the history of the Church, and recent news all over the world, totally discredit the Catholic Church as a model of moral virtue anyway, so there is not much left to attack in that area. What interests me much more is the logical consistency of their position.

Ciao

- viole
 
Wow, 6 months! Your expertise must be truly phenomenal by now.

You know, Bishop John Shelby Spong (Episcopal, NJ) studied and commented on the Bible for more than 60 years (or about 120 times as long as you).

Spong was one of the first American bishops to ordain a woman into the clergy, in 1977, and he was the first to ordain an openly gay man, Robert Williams in 1989. Later the church followed his lead. An Episcopal court ruled that homosexuality was not counter to its principles in 1996, and the church recognized same-sex marriages in 2015.

It's a pity Spong died a just over a year ago, or we could have asked you to help him see just how wrong he was.
First, I never said I was an expert so you can drop that garbage now. 2nd, just because someone says that something is acceptable doesn't mean that it is. I trust scripture to tell me what I need to know about right and wrong
 

Lain

Well-Known Member
And usually, in a sterile married couple, only one is sterile. So, according to church logic, if any, it should condemn the fertile one. Is that correct?

Anyway, I have a related question, which is creating quite a fuss here in Central Europe among Catholics. Why does the church forbid blessing to gays, but not to, say, people who use contraception? And why does it refute that simple gesture, while it has no problem to bless weapons? Or war ships?

Ciao

- viole

I am not sure where you see a condemnation of sterile folks not being allowed to marry following out from this. Not every time someone has sex does it make a child, as I said to be able to do something and for that act to be productive is two different things. To really go back to the bronze age with a comparison, to be able to plant and for anything to grow out of that action are two different things.

The Church can bless persons which said tendencies but not same-sex unions or marriages, not the union or marriage itself. It affirms this in the CDF thing on the issue recently released:

"Consequently, in order to conform with the nature of sacramentals, when a blessing is invoked on particular human relationships, in addition to the right intention of those who participate, it is necessary that what is blessed be objectively and positively ordered to receive and express grace, according to the designs of God inscribed in creation, and fully revealed by Christ the Lord. Therefore, only those realities which are in themselves ordered to serve those ends are congruent with the essence of the blessing imparted by the Church.

"For this reason, it is not licit to impart a blessing on relationships, or partnerships, even stable, that involve sexual activity outside of marriage (i.e., outside the indissoluble union of a man and a woman open in itself to the transmission of life), as is the case of the unions between persons of the same sex. The presence in such relationships of positive elements, which are in themselves to be valued and appreciated, cannot justify these relationships and render them legitimate objects of an ecclesial blessing, since the positive elements exist within the context of a union not ordered to the Creator’s plan.

"The answer to the proposed dubium does not preclude the blessings given to individual persons with homosexual inclinations, who manifest the will to live in fidelity to the revealed plans of God as proposed by Church teaching. Rather, it declares illicit any form of blessing that tends to acknowledge their unions as such. In this case, in fact, the blessing would manifest not the intention to entrust such individual persons to the protection and help of God, in the sense mentioned above, but to approve and encourage a choice and a way of life that cannot be recognized as objectively ordered to the revealed plans of God."
 

Unveiled Artist

Veteran Member
There you go again, for at least the 15th time, with your own definition that is different from the OP. Do you have a problem with arguing your definition on YOUR OWN created thread instead of continuing to force it on someone else’s thread? How is anyone supposed to address and discuss homosexuality according to the OP when you continue to interrupt with your own definition and agenda?

Cut it. You're not part of the conversation and you're making a mountain out of a molehill.
 

Lain

Well-Known Member
I've actually never tied morality to anything outside of hurting others-speech, body, or mind. Anything outside of that the morality is individual. So, I can't say "this type of sex" is morally bad. It may be taboo and make me uncomfortable (say opposite-sex sex for example ;)) but nothing to where I call it a sin. It's one thing to say the act is wrong but another to relate to murder and rape. It translate as homosexuals are murderers and rapists-which the latter was highly believed in the past. In the early 1990s during Clinton in the US homosexuals couldn't be boy scout leaders for fear he would molest young boys.

I mean many christians may think LGBTQ is focused on their morals but it really goes beyond theological differences.

I wish this applied in christianity to same-sex couples who wish to touch the people they love. I can't imagine many christians who can't do this. Though, my friend (former girlfriend) is heavily christian and believes god knows her heart.

I understand if it were murder but not sex.

Putting god-says-so aside for a minute what's inherently wrong with same-sex sex that causes negative consequences?

I know you said it separates them from god but from a non-god view how is it wrong (assuming the intentions are healthy and safe sex between both parties involved)?

When a christian says same-sex sex is wrong to many it translates not just from scripture, but medically, morally (from the couple's point of view), legally, and otherwise. Those reasons that hurt people or take people's rights away rather than theological differences.

That's a pretty harsh way to use same-sex sex and murder together with similar gravity. Can you imagine how a christian gay person feels when he sees homosexual align with murder and rape? No matter how a person interprets it, it's not a good feeling.

Is it only theologically and morally bad based on christian values?

I know there are christians on this board that mistake their christian values with medical facts in regards to sexual orientation, homosexuals, and same-sex sex. I would say the two are completely separate due to culture, language, bias, laws, and people's personal experiences.

I can see those who engage in sexual promiscuity. Though I'm coming from couples who do not.

Yeah that is an unfortunate effect of how that sounds, although it comes from just how expansive Christian morality is, that the Lord Jesus says that we will be judged for even "every idle word" that we speak during life, not to mention every consented-to thought and even minor act, every knowing choice being subject to judgment so that even the Saints can barely stand it. Not sure if better terminology could be used but perhaps that is something which can be worked on so it doesn't translate this way.

As for why it's wrong from a non-God view, I genuinely can not interpret the world that way and do not even know how things would exist let alone have good and evil beyond it. I would say "perhaps an atheist would say it's against nature" but the concept of nature I have comes from medieval times (and before that even) and is bound up with God.

As for it being theologically and morally bad based on values, religion is not separated from the world in my view and is not merely personal. It applies to all and is in all spheres of life with no separation, so a thing being theologically bad would just be universally bad, and whatever is good would be universally so.
 
History and science chuck the first two books of the Bible. We know that there never were only two people. We know that there never was a worldwide flood. Historians and archaeologists have refuted the Exodus story. And no, corrections are not an attack on a person's intelligence. A person may be intelligent but unable to reason in certain areas when there is an emotional attachment to a belief.

When it comes to the creation myth and the Noah's Ark myth there is no scientific evidence for either and endless evidence against. When it comes to the Exodus there is no archaeological evidence for it and evidence against it.

I wonder what you think constitutes "evidence".
Since you're so concerned about my understanding of evidence, why don't you send me the "evidence" you have to support your above claim. Give me a picture of what evidence is. I don't deny that I'm new to this and have only been at it about 6 months. That being said I have only touched on a couple topics thus far and neither involves creation or the exodus. Because I'm new to this I have not built an extensive knowledge base yet. My biggest evidence currently is personal and is only effective in addressing those who knew me before now or those who already believe. Note that I did NOT say my only evidence simply my best currently
 
Perfect rubbish!

Homosexuality, as with a great of other attributes of humans, is the result of a complex interplay of genetic, hormonal, and environmental influences. Other examples include things like polythelia (multiple nipples, even if only Godly people are supposed to have two), polydactyly (extra toes or fingers), musical genius, autism spectrum disorder, albinism, and many more besides.

Even on your high horse, trust me, you know no more about human nature or God's nature or desires than I do, and perhaps less --- and I'm an atheist.

And gay.
How do extra fingers, toes, or nipples equate to homosexuality you're comparing apples to oranges. Homosexuality is not a genetic defect it's a feeling. Maybe I'm misunderstanding you, but I don't follow this comparison
 
Hah, allegedly six months worth of evidence and you didn't provide a scrap of it in your reply, instead you just contented yourself with a tall claim, which is what I have come to expect from Christians.

In my opinion.
I never said what my research was on. It doesn't happen to pertain to this thread and I'm not trying to hijack someone else's forum. When I'm done having my work edited for errors and it's ready to share I will start my own thread and allow people to dissect it there
 

pearl

Well-Known Member
Don't assume there's love, just because there's sex or a relation. That's an extremely naive and insidious remark.

A homosexual union or marriage may be a committed relationship based on love every bit as a heterosexual marriage. When homosexual marriage became legal there were many over fifty who were in a committed relationship, and finally allowed to live their love as others do. You can not accept that because you apparently rely on you're assumption that homosexuality is a choice. I understand, if you give up that stance, you must accept that homosexuals are every bit as much, God's creation as you or I.
As in both orientations there are sexual encounters that have nothing to do with love, simply sex.
 

Evangelicalhumanist

"Truth" isn't a thing...
Premium Member
The ability to discern right from wrong, to distinguish between beneficial and harmful acts, is derived from Christian love.
That is quite wrong. Many, many non-Christians are perfectly able to discern right from wrong, beneficial and harmful, so your statement is completely ridiculous.
 

viole

Ontological Naturalist
Premium Member
am not sure where you see a condemnation of sterile folks not being allowed to marry following out from this. Not every time someone has sex does it make a child, as I said to be able to do something and for that act to be productive is two different things. To really go back to the bronze age with a comparison, to be able to plant and for anything to grow out of that action are two different things.
Well, consider this case:

1) Alice can have children. She is a healthy young woman perfectly fit to have kids
2) Bob cannot. He knows that he cannot possibly have children. Alice is aware of that.

However, they both marry. Now, from the point of view of God's "design", Alice is engaging in a relationship that will bring no fruits, and she is perfectly aware of that. So, I don't see a big difference with a gay that does the same, at least for what concerns engaging in a relationship known to give no (carbon based) fruits.

So, why doesn't the church condemn Alice, too?

Assuming, of course, that it doesn't condemn her. After seeing the church excommunicate doctors who performed abortion on a 9 year old raped child, the sky is the limit or what the church can do, so to speak.

Ciao

- viole
 

Lain

Well-Known Member
Well, consider this case:

1) Alice can have children. She is a healthy young woman perfectly fit to have kids
2) Bob cannot. He knows that he cannot possibly have children. Alice is aware of that.

However, they both marry. Now, from the point of view of God's "design", Alice is engaging in a relationship that will bring no fruits, and she is perfectly aware of that. So, I don't see a big difference with a gay that does the same, at least for what concerns engaging in a relationship known to give no (carbon based) fruits.

So, why doesn't the church condemn Alice, too?

Assuming, of course, that it doesn't condemn her. After seeing the church excommunicate doctors who performed abortion on a 9 year old raped child, the sky is the limit or what the church can do, so to speak.

Ciao

- viole

Because knowledge of this does not change the nature of the act, a defect in being able to produce does not change the moral object. People who are both infertile are able to marry even if they do not know this. But the act is intrinsically different in the other case and has a separate moral object. This is why NFP is allowed but condoms and other contraceptive methods are not, for the act must remain the same even if particular individuals for known or unknown reasons are not able to have the produce of the act. At least in this view, my view, and that it is not condemned explicitly (as in it is explicitly not condemned and is in Canon Law declared, known infertility, to not be an impediment to marriage), this would be the reason.
 
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