Is Deuteronomy 18:18 Jesus?

JerryMyers said:

Even after Jesus himself told you who the true God is and that he was sent by this one true God (John 17:3), you still say Jesus is the one true God ???! Unbelievable !!!


Well, the only reason Christians quoted John 8:58 as ‘proof’ that Jesus is God is because they believe God, in Exodus 3:14, said “I Am What I Am”, therefore, Jesus must be God because he too said “I am” as in John 8:58. However, “I Am What I Am” of Exodus 3:14 is a mistranslation of the Hebrew text and the correct translation is “I will be what I will be” and thus, Jesus saying “Before Abraham was, I am” has nothing to do with him being divine. Furthermore, God’s name is NOT “I Am What I Am”. In context, Moses was asking God what name should he tell his people, if they ask him about God, and God told him to just say He will be what He will be or in other words, God told Moses to tell his people that He will be what He will be, that is, He’s beyond the human’s mental capacity to understand who He is but just know Him as “the Lord God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob” – (Exodus 3:15).

Also, in Exodus 34:14, we are told God’s name is Jealous. Does that mean anyone who says “I am jealous” is God too ? Gimme a break !



You don’t have any clue what Luke 22:42 is all about, do you ?? Luke 22:42 is about Jesus praying to God to help him out of his predicaments with the Jews who were out to get rid of him. Here, Jesus prayed to God to save him from his enemies.

“Not to my will, but to Your Will shall be done” means Jesus will accept whatever fate God has planned for him, NOT what he had planned for himself. So, no, Luke 22:42 is NOT about the man-made trinity, let alone, support it !!


When Jesus referred to God as ‘Father’, he’s referring to his relationship with God as that of a ‘father and son’ relationship, meaning, it’s a very close and loving relationship. Jesus also wants all his disciples to have this same close and loving relationship with God and that’s why he said ‘our Father who art in heaven.

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What John 17:3 is saying:

While Jesus walked the earth, he took off the outward robes of deity and put on the robes of a servant. (Phil 2:6-8 + John 13:3-20) Jesus on earth was still "very God" or the "only true God" but he took on a new role of a servant where all His efforts was to direct people to the Father as God and not to Himself. He humbled Himself, avoiding the glory of being God on earth and directing it to the Father alone. In the midst of Jesus' final prayer in the garden just prior to his arrest, we see that such submission was not merely a show while in the presence of man, but a true to the heart submission to the Father. Jesus was not denying he was the "only true God", but was praising the Father as such. the very next words after this verse are: "I glorified Thee on the earth ... now glorify me". Jesus would not sing his own praises! In very simple terms, if Jesus addressed someone else as "man", that does not mean Jesus himself was not a man. Jesus was not creating a point of distinction between Himself and the Father in the expression, "only true God", but between the Father and any other "so called god" like idols. Jesus had lived among the Romans with their many competing gods and Jesus was addressing the Father with these idols in mind.

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Yes, the Bible certainly teaches that Jesus existed before Abraham. Jesus was “with God in the beginning” (John 1:2; see also John 1:14; Colossians 1:16–17), and that predates Abraham by quite a while. Jesus claimed to be divine on numerous occasions, and one such claim was that He existed prior to Abraham. Not only did Jesus exist prior to Abraham, but Abraham gave Him honor (Genesis 18:2–5).

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Skywalker said:

If I said that the president of the United States is greater than I, it means he is greater in authority, but he is no more of a man than I am. I'm a human being and so is he.

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Skywalker said:

John 14:28 says Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father:

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Skywalker said:

for my Father is greater than I. Trinity proof texts: John 17:3
What John 17:3 is saying:
While Jesus walked the earth, he took off the outward robes of deity and put on the robes of a servant. (Phil 2:6-8 + John 13:3-20) Jesus on earth was still "very God" or the "only true God" but he took on a new role of a servant where all His efforts was to direct people to the Father as God and not to Himself. ………

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Skywalker said:

John 1:2, John 1:14, and Colossians 1:16-17 talk about Jesus existing before Abraham. Did Jesus exist before Abraham? | GotQuestions.org

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Skywalker said:

Yes, the Bible certainly teaches that Jesus existed before Abraham. Jesus was “with God in the beginning” (John 1:2; see also John 1:14; Colossians 1:16–17), and that predates Abraham by quite a while. Jesus claimed to be divine on numerous occasions, and one such claim was that He existed prior to Abraham. Not only did Jesus exist prior to Abraham, but Abraham gave Him honor (Genesis 18:2–5).

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JerryMyers said:

Well, yes, anyone can see that the president of the United is greater than you in authority, irrespective whether you say that or not, but, saying the president of the United State is greater than you don’t make you the president of the United State. Likewise, when Jesus said ‘My Father is greater than I’, it also means God is greater than man, including Jesus, in authority and everything else, but saying that doesn’t make Jesus or any man God either !



In context, John 14 is about Jesus comforting his disciples who were sad that he’s leaving them soon. Comforting his disciples makes Jesus God ??!!!



Unbelievable… STILL ignoring Jesus’ words for the words of other people – the folks behind CARM.org and GotQuestions.org are not prophets, Jesus is.

In John 17:3, Jesus told you PLAINLY and CLEARLY who the true God is and he was sent by this true God. In John 13:20, Jesus said, “whoever accepts me accepts the one who sent me”. In John 14:31, Jesus said, “I love the Father and do exactly what my Father has commanded me”. CLEARLY, Jesus has NEVER seen himself as God or someone equal to God, but he has always seen himself as an obedient servant who was sent by God and only do what God had commanded him.



Anyone who can think and truly listen to the words of Jesus, will know Jesus is NOT God, and John 1 is about how God initiated His Will to create anything He Will. In this particular case, God is creating a man, and He did this by just uttering a word, and since its God who uttered it, it’s called the Word of God. The phrase ‘And the Word became flesh..’ is no different from saying ‘and the Word became Light..’ when God created Light by just saying ‘Let there BE Light…..BUT you refused to think nor do you want to listen to Jesus’ crystal clear words about who the true God is – in you, is fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah.



No, the Bible never taught you Jesus physically existed before Abraham, it’s your blind faith of other people’s conspiracy theories (which you can find aplenty in CARM.org and GotQuestions.org and other similar sites) that taught you that. What the Bible teaches you is that we ALL existed in the realm of God’s Mind and Plan long before we were even created – “Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, before you were born I set you apart; I appointed you as a prophet to the nations.” – Jeremiah 1:5


Submission to God means to worship/pray to, and do the Will of God. Since when a wife/husband worship/pray to, do the will of their spouse ??? Is that the kind of relationship you have with your spouse ??


So, why did he said ‘our Father who art in heaven..’ ?? Oh, wait, let me guess, all his disciples are also God the Sons and are part of the trinity too, right ?? LOL !

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Before I formed you in the womb I knew you; Before you were born I sanctified you; I ordained you a prophet to the nations.

Since the Bible does not support any idea of the preexistence of man in any form, let’s try to understand what this verse means.

“Before I formed you in the womb I knew you.” That raises the question, how did God know us before He formed us in the womb? There are two possible answers:

1) We existed in some form, and at some place, prior to being conceived (formed) in the womb and that’s how God knew us.

2) God’s knowing us is different and outside the natural realm of how we know something.omniscience (all knowing) and His eternality (always existing) makes it possible for Him to have knowledge of someone before conception.

While the first is a possible answer, it is not a biblical answer. God’s Word does not support such an idea.

God’ Word does, however, teach a knowledge of God, which is wondrous and beyond our comprehension and yet completely true and understandable. God existed in eternity past. He exists now, and He will exist will continue to exist in eternity future. God is eternal. God is also omnipresent. Present in every moment of time, past present, and future. God is also omniscient (all-knowing). He is able to have knowledge of someone before conception or something before it occurs.

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JerryMyers said:

Common sense should tell you that if Jesus submitted himself to God, then, he himself cannot be God !!

In John 17:3, John 13:20 and John 14:31, Jesus was CLEARLY telling you he is NOT God. Since he was sent by God and only do what he was commanded by God, then whoever hear him is the same as hearing from God Himself as in Jesus' lifetime, he is the way and the representative of God. Likewise, Moses, Noah, Abraham was the way and the representative of God in their respective lifetime.


Did you miss my earlier response on John 1 ?? Or you just ignore it because it does not align with the words of the other people whom you only listen to ??

Well, just in case you missed it, here it is again - "John 1 is about how God initiated His Will to create anything He Will. In this particular case, God was creating a man, and He did this by just uttering a word, and since it's God who uttered it, it’s called the Word of God'.

The phrase ‘And the Word became flesh..’ is no different from saying ‘and the Word became Light..’ when God created Light by just saying ‘Let there BE Light…..’. BUT you refused to think nor do you want to listen to Jesus’ crystal clear words about who the true God is – in you is fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah".


How do you know Jeremiah was not talking about the pre-existence of souls ?? You, me, or any man, for that matter, cannot know for certain - only God will know what Jeremiah really meant in Jeremiah 1:5.

And even if you said it was about God’s foreknowledge of every man before he was formed, how do you know Jesus was NOT talking about God’s foreknowledge of himself and NOT his pre-existence when he said “Before Abraham was, I am…..” ??? Jesus could easily have meant to say “Before Abraham was, I am the Messiah” which will be about God’s foreknowledge of Jesus before he was formed in the womb of Mary....BUT, we will never know what exactly Jesus was about to say in John 8:58 since he was not able to complete his sentence as the crowd started to throw stones at him and he has to run for cover…just like any man will do.

Christians, on the other hand, took Jesus incomplete sentence in John 8:58 as an opportunity to project Jesus as God by claiming Jesus is preexistent because he said ‘I am’ in John 8:58 and God said ‘I Am’ in Exodus 3:14 and that makes him God, which is absurd, to say the least !!

‘I Am’ in ‘I Am who I Am’ of Exodus 3.14 is NOT even in the same context as ‘I am’ in ‘Before Abraham was, I am’ of John 8:58 !! That’s like saying the ‘fire’ in ‘the house is on fire’ is in the same context as the fire in ‘I will fire you if you sleep on the job again' !!

THINK !! God gave us the faculty of intelligence so that we can think rationally and logically. God does NOT give us the faculty of intelligence to simply listen and follow blindly the words of other people !

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Jesus Christ has perfect knowledge of the time of judgement day. The Bible tells us that all things were made through Jesus Christ, the Son and Word of God (John 1:1-3, 14-18; Colossians 1:15-17; Hebrews 1:1-2). This means that all times were made through him, including the day of judgement. The Bible also tells us that Jesus Christ is the one who will judge all people (Matthew 25:31-46; John 5:22, 27-29; Acts 17:31). Since the day of judgement was made through Jesus Christ and he will be the judge on that day, it is reasonable to say that he has perfect knowledge of when that day will be. (St Thomas Aquinas, SUMMA THEOLOGICA, 3rd Part, Question 10, Article 2, Reply to Objection 1)

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Two thousand years ago the eternal Word of God became Human and entered human history. This took place by the Son of God the Father perfectly uniting a human nature to himself. All human beings have a limited union with God. God is existence, life, love, truth, goodness, wisdom, and power. Our existence and life, and all the love, truth, goodness, wisdom and power among us, is merely a limited sharing in God. The Incarnation consists in this sharing being raised to the highest possible level, by the Word of God taking a human nature to himself. In other words, Jesus Christ is one Person with two natures, a Divine nature and a Human nature.

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The concept of pre-existence cannot be followed to its logical conclusion. Pre-existence means one of three things: (1) the soul has always existed, (2) the soul was created at a previous time and waited, incorporeal, until it could inhabit a body on earth, or (3) the soul inhabited another body in the past and transmigrated to its current body. If (1) is true and souls have always existed, then human beings are also part of God, uncreated and self-determined. This concept is clearly contrary to the Bible’s claims that there is no other God but Yahweh (Genesis 5:1; 1 Timothy 2:5; 1 John 4:12; Malachi 2:10; 1 Corinthians 8:5–6). If (2) is true and a soul waited in a heavenly nurseryprior to earthly birth, then Genesis 2:7 is wrong: “The Lord God formed a man from the dust of the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living being.” The words “man became” indicate a definite beginning in which Adam’s soul and body came to life at the same time. If (3) is true, and a soul inhabited another body in a bygone era, then at what point was the soul created and for what purpose? The Bible is clear that each person will answer for his or her own life (Revelation 20:13; Romans 2:6; Jeremiah 32:19). When the previous body died, where did the soul go? Hebrews 9:27says, “It is appointed for men to die once and after this comes judgment.” This applies to everyone.

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Skywalker said:

The Bible says that Jesus is God. A Response to a Muslim Article titled "Is Jesus Really God?"
Jesus Christ has perfect knowledge of the time of judgement day. The Bible tells us that all things were made through Jesus Christ, the Son and Word of God (John 1:1-3, 14-18; Colossians 1:15-17; Hebrews 1:1-2). This means that all times were made through him, including the day of judgement. The Bible also tells us that Jesus Christ is the one who will judge all people (Matthew 25:31-46; John 5:22, 27-29; Acts 17:31). Since the day of judgement was made through Jesus Christ and he will be the judge on that day, it is reasonable to say that he has perfect knowledge of when that day will be. (St Thomas Aquinas, SUMMA THEOLOGICA, 3rd Part, Question 10, Article 2, Reply to Objection 1)
John 1:2 and John 1:14 refer to Jesus being the word of God. A Response to a Muslim Article titled "Is Jesus Really God?"
Two thousand years ago the eternal Word of God became Human and entered human history. This took place by the Son of God the Father perfectly uniting a human nature to himself. All human beings have a limited union with God. God is existence, life, love, truth, goodness, wisdom, and power. Our existence and life, and all the love, truth, goodness, wisdom and power among us, is merely a limited sharing in God. The Incarnation consists in this sharing being raised to the highest possible level, by the Word of God taking a human nature to himself. In other words, Jesus Christ is one Person with two natures, a Divine nature and a Human nature.

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JerryMyers said:

What determines whether Jesus is God or not IS what God said of Jesus and what Jesus said of himself, and neither Jesus ever claimed he’s God, nor did God who sent Jesus, ever said Jesus is God, only what other people said…then again, I can understand where you are coming from as you only listen to the words of other people.

As for the link you gave, it says, “Jesus Christ has perfect knowledge of the time of judgement day”, BUT Jesus said, “But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the son, but only the Father” – Mark 13:32…..And you claimed the Bible said Jesus is God and then try to tailor-fit the Bible to support your claim ! You really need to stop listening to other people and sourcing your information from the likes of CARM.org, GotQuestions.org, answering-islam.org, etc – they will lead you to “wide is the gate and broad is the road that leads to destruction, and many enter through it”.


Then, you must be wrong when you claimed Jesus was talking about his pre-existence when he said, “Before Abraham was, I am..”.

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The concept of pre-existence cannot be followed to its logical conclusion. Pre-existence means one of three things: (1) the soul has always existed, (2) the soul was created at a previous time and waited, incorporeal, until it could inhabit a body on earth, or (3) the soul inhabited another body in the past and transmigrated to its current body. If (1) is true and souls have always existed, then human beings are also part of God, uncreated and self-determined. This concept is clearly contrary to the Bible’s claims that there is no other God but Yahweh (Genesis 5:1; 1 Timothy 2:5; 1 John 4:12; Malachi 2:10; 1 Corinthians 8:5–6). If (2) is true and a soul waited in a heavenly nurseryprior to earthly birth, then Genesis 2:7 is wrong: “The Lord God formed a man from the dust of the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living being.” The words “man became” indicate a definite beginning in which Adam’s soul and body came to life at the same time. If (3) is true, and a soul inhabited another body in a bygone era, then at what point was the soul created and for what purpose? The Bible is clear that each person will answer for his or her own life (Revelation 20:13; Romans 2:6; Jeremiah 32:19). When the previous body died, where did the soul go? Hebrews 9:27says, “It is appointed for men to die once and after this comes judgment.” This applies to everyone.

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Skywalker said:

The human soul is created at conception. What does the Bible say about the pre-existence of souls? | GotQuestions.org

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JerryMyers said:

The point here is, If pre-existence is NOT a Biblical teaching and that the human soul is created at conception, then Jesus CANNOT be talking about his pre-existence when he said, “Before Abraham was, I am…”. GotQuestions just GotConfused ??

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From the testimony of Scripture, Lord willing, it is now clear that the Angel of The Lord was indeed Jesus Christ in the Old Testament. Rather than sitting in a reserve role until the New Testament, Christ The Lord was very active in the great plan of salvation that would be fulfilled through Him and achieved by Him. The Bible truly is all about Jesus Christ, from Genesis to Revelation. And understanding this Biblical truth develops a deeper insight into the compassion, care and love The Lord has for all of us. At no time did God ever leave His people abandoned and without hope. And when strong confirmation was needed, the Angel of God, the express of image of God Himself, appeared to reassure, lead and empower. And today, Jesus Christ, now revealed as the Son of God and soon to be revealed in His full glory, makes the same promise to all who believe.

“and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.” – Jesus Christ, Matthew 28:20.

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JerryMyers said:

Even after Jesus himself told you who the true God is and that he was sent by this one true God (John 17:3), you still say Jesus is the one true God ???! Unbelievable !!!


Well, the only reason Christians quoted John 8:58 as ‘proof’ that Jesus is God is because they believe God, in Exodus 3:14, said “I Am What I Am”, therefore, Jesus must be God because he too said “I am” as in John 8:58. However, “I Am What I Am” of Exodus 3:14 is a mistranslation of the Hebrew text and the correct translation is “I will be what I will be” and thus, Jesus saying “Before Abraham was, I am” has nothing to do with him being divine. Furthermore, God’s name is NOT “I Am What I Am”. In context, Moses was asking God what name should he tell his people, if they ask him about God, and God told him to just say He will be what He will be or in other words, God told Moses to tell his people that He will be what He will be, that is, He’s beyond the human’s mental capacity to understand who He is but just know Him as “the Lord God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob” – (Exodus 3:15).

Also, in Exodus 34:14, we are told God’s name is Jealous. Does that mean anyone who says “I am jealous” is God too ? Gimme a break !



You don’t have any clue what Luke 22:42 is all about, do you ?? Luke 22:42 is about Jesus praying to God to help him out of his predicaments with the Jews who were out to get rid of him. Here, Jesus prayed to God to save him from his enemies.

“Not to my will, but to Your Will shall be done” means Jesus will accept whatever fate God has planned for him, NOT what he had planned for himself. So, no, Luke 22:42 is NOT about the man-made trinity, let alone, support it !!


When Jesus referred to God as ‘Father’, he’s referring to his relationship with God as that of a ‘father and son’ relationship, meaning, it’s a very close and loving relationship. Jesus also wants all his disciples to have this same close and loving relationship with God and that’s why he said ‘our Father who art in heaven.

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Simply put, in His humanity, Christ is lesser than God the Father. But in His deity He is equal. This explains why Mark 13:32 says that even the Son didn’t know something the Father did. As soon as we understand Christ’s dual nature, the alleged contradiction disappears.

In fact, this is the only way any of us can make any sense at all of the biblical language. On the one hand, there are distinct functions in the work of redemption voluntarily assumed by each member of the Godhead and expressed in language of deference and submission. On the other hand, there is perfect equality—each divine person sharing the same divine essence in an inter-trinitarian relationship.

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The great “I AM!” The God of the Bible is, the great and mighty “I AM.” He is not the God that was or the God that is someday to come or a God restrained by time or a God who was active and now is inactive. He is the great and sovereign “I AM.”

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Saying, Father, if thou be willing,.... If it be consistent with thy will of saving sinners, and which thou hast declared to me, and I have undertook to perform: the other evangelists say, "if it be possible"; See Gill on Matthew 26:39.

remove this cup from me; meaning, either his present sorrows and distress, or his approaching sufferings and death, which he had in view, or both:

nevertheless not my will; as man, for Christ had an human will distinct from, though not contrary to his divine will:

but thine be done; which Christ undertook, and came into this world to do; and it was his meat and drink to do it, and was the same with his own will, as the Son of God; See Gill on Matthew 26:39, and See Gill on Matthew 26:42.

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– "Our Father who are in heaven,"

"No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven — the Son of Man." John 3:13

"‘For I have come down from heaven not to do my will but to do the will of him who sent me.’ … At this the Jews began to grumble about him because he said, ‘I am the bread that came down from heaven.’ They said, ‘Is this not Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How can he now say, "I came down from heaven"?’" John 6:38, 41-42

"After he said this, he was taken up before their very eyes, and a cloud hid him from their sight. They were looking intently up into the sky as he was going, when suddenly two men dressed in white stood beside them. ‘Men of Galilee,’ they said, ‘why do you stand here looking into the sky? This same Jesus, who has been taken from you into heaven, will come back in the same way you have seen him go into heaven.’" Acts 1:9-11

"So it is written: ‘The first man Adam became a living being’; the last Adam, a life-giving spirit. The spiritual did not come first, but the natural, and after that the spiritual. The first man was of the dust of the earth, the second man from heaven. As was the earthly man, so are those who are of the earth; and as is the man from heaven, so also are those who are of heaven. And just as we have borne the likeness of the earthly man, so shall we bear the likeness of the man from heaven." 1 Corinthians 15:45-49

"But our citizenship is in heaven. And we eagerly await a Savior from there, the Lord Jesus Christ, who, by the power that enables him to bring everything under his control, will transform our lowly bodies so that they will be like his glorious body." Philippians 3:20-21

"for they themselves report what kind of reception you gave us. They tell how you turned to God from idols to serve the living and true God, and to wait for his Son from heaven, whom he raised from the dead—Jesus, who rescues us from the coming wrath." 1 Thessalonians 1:9-10

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Skywalker said:

Jesus existed before Mary had him. Mary was not the mother of God, she was the mother of the humanity of Jesus. Colossians 2:9 doesn't mean that the Father and Holy Spirit incarnated. For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. Jesus appeared to Joseph in Matthew 1:20
But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
Is Jesus Christ The Angel of The Lord? – Finding Christ In The Old Testament

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JerryMyers said:

Again, you are just relying on conjectures of other people who interpreted scripture out of context to tailor-fit their belief rather than on what Jesus clearly so said. From Jesus is God to Jesus is literally the Son of God and now Jesus is the Angel of God ??? UNBELIEVABLE !!

Jesus was fully aware there are people who worship him as God, and that’s probably why he prayed to God in the hope that they can see the truth - ‘Now this is eternal life: that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent” (John 17:3) – it couldn’t get any clearer than that to know that Jesus and the one true God are NOT one and the same being and that one (Jesus) is subservient to the other (the true God). Why you refuse to use your faculty of intelligence which God gave you but rather prefer to rely on conjectures of other people is beyond my understanding.

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The appearances of the angel of the Lord cease after the incarnation of Christ. Angels are mentioned numerous times in the New Testament, but “the angel of the Lord” is never mentioned in the New Testament after the birth of Christ. There is some confusion regarding Matthew 28:2, where the KJV says “the angel of the Lord” descended from heaven and rolled the stone away from Jesus’ tomb. It is important to note that the original Greek has no article in front of angel; it could be “the angel” or “an angel,” but the article must be supplied by the translators. Other translations besides the KJV say it was “an angel,” which is the better wording.

It is possible that appearances of the angel of the Lord were manifestations of Jesus before His incarnation. Jesus declared Himself to be existent “before Abraham” (John 8:58), so it is logical that He would be active and manifest in the world. Whatever the case, whether the angel of the Lord was a pre-incarnate appearance of Christ (Christophany) or an appearance of God the Father (theophany), it is highly likely that the phrase “the angel of the Lord” usually identifies a physical appearance of God.

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Skywalker said:

Jesus was the Son of God incarnated. Contradictions: Greater Than or Equal To?
Simply put, in His humanity, Christ is lesser than God the Father. But in His deity He is equal. This explains why Mark 13:32 says that even the Son didn’t know something the Father did. As soon as we understand Christ’s dual nature, the alleged contradiction disappears.

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Skywalker said:

In fact, this is the only way any of us can make any sense at all of the biblical language. On the one hand, there are distinct functions in the work of redemption voluntarily assumed by each member of the Godhead and expressed in language of deference and submission. On the other hand, there is perfect equality—each divine person sharing the same divine essence in an inter-trinitarian relationship.

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Skywalker said:

When Jesus said before Abraham was I am he was talking about the fact that He was self existing and eternal. He is the Great I AM » Reasons for Hope* Jesus
The great “I AM!” The God of the Bible is, the great and mighty “I AM.” He is not the God that was or the God that is someday to come or a God restrained by time or a God who was active and now is inactive. He is the great and sovereign “I AM.”.

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Skywalker said:

Jesus had two natures, divine and human. Luke 22:42 Commentaries: saying, "Father, if You are willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Yours be done."
Saying, Father, if thou be willing,.... If it be consistent with thy will of saving sinners, and which thou hast declared to me, and I have undertook to perform: the other evangelists say, "if it be possible"; See Gill on Matthew 26:39.
remove this cup from me; meaning, either his present sorrows and distress, or his approaching sufferings and death, which he had in view, or both:
nevertheless not my will; as man, for Christ had an human will distinct from, though not contrary to his divine will:
but thine be done; which Christ undertook, and came into this world to do; and it was his meat and drink to do it, and was the same with his own will, as the Son of God; See Gill on Matthew 26:39, and See Gill on Matthew 26:42.

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Skywalker said:

Jesus instructing his disciples to pray is the context of the Lord's prayer. Context shows the meaning of Bible verses. When you read the Bible over and over again you notice things that you didn't notice before. The Lord’s Prayer – More Proof for the Deity of Christ
– "Our Father who are in heaven,"
"No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven — the Son of Man." John 3:13
"‘For I have come down from heaven not to do my will but to do the will of him who sent me.’ … At this the Jews began to grumble about him because he said, ‘I am the bread that came down from heaven.’ They said, ‘Is this not Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How can he now say, "I came down from heaven"?’" John 6:38, 41-42
"After he said this, he was taken up before their very eyes, and a cloud hid him from their sight. They were looking intently up into the sky as he was going, when suddenly two men dressed in white stood beside them. ‘Men of Galilee,’ they said, ‘why do you stand here looking into the sky? This same Jesus, who has been taken from you into heaven, will come back in the same way you have seen him go into heaven.’" Acts 1:9-11
"So it is written: ‘The first man Adam became a living being’; the last Adam, a life-giving spirit. The spiritual did not come first, but the natural, and after that the spiritual. The first man was of the dust of the earth, the second man from heaven. As was the earthly man, so are those who are of the earth; and as is the man from heaven, so also are those who are of heaven. And just as we have borne the likeness of the earthly man, so shall we bear the likeness of the man from heaven." 1 Corinthians 15:45-49
"But our citizenship is in heaven. And we eagerly await a Savior from there, the Lord Jesus Christ, who, by the power that enables him to bring everything under his control, will transform our lowly bodies so that they will be like his glorious body." Philippians 3:20-21
"for they themselves report what kind of reception you gave us. They tell how you turned to God from idols to serve the living and true God, and to wait for his Son from heaven, whom he raised from the dead—Jesus, who rescues us from the coming wrath." 1 Thessalonians 1:9-10

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Skywalker said:

Jesus is referred to in the Old Testament as the Angel of the Lord. Who is the angel of the Lord? | GotQuestions.org

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JerryMyers said:

Was Jesus even mentioned as the Angel of the Lord in the OT ? No ? Then, its just conjectures. Still turning to GotQuestions.org for answers - UNBELIEVABLE !!

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Question: "Does the Bible teach that there would be two comings of the Messiah?"

Answer: The second coming of Christ is a major tenet of Christian theology, and we eagerly look forward to our “blessed hope” (Titus 2:13). But the knowledge that the Messiah would have two comings came to humanity gradually, as God’s revelation to mankind was progressive.

The Old Testament clearly teaches that the Messiah would come, but it does not explicitly say that He would come twice. The information God revealed about the Messiah started very basic, with more detail added bit by bit. People living in later times knew more than those who lived earlier. Abraham knew more about the purposes of God than did Noah. David knew more than Abraham. The prophets knew more than David. And finally, the apostles in the New Testament knew more than the prophets. The apostles after the resurrection knew more than they did before the resurrection.

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Skywalker said:

The Bible has progressive revelation. It's a limited book it can't give every detail that there is to be about everything. Even the disciples were surprised when Jesus resurrected. Does the Bible teach that there would be two comings of the Messiah? | GotQuestions.org

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SalixIncendium said:

It's ambiguous. IIRC, the Christians believe it was Jesus. The Jews believe it was Joshua. The Muslims believe it was Muhammed.

And I'm not sure, but if I were a betting man, I would wager the Baha'i believe it was Baha'u'llah.

I believe it was Barry Foster.

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JerryMyers said:

Well, if the Bible has the time and space to give every detail of David’s sex romp, surely, it must have the time and space to give every detail of Jesus as the Angel of the Lord, if that’s who Jesus is…unless, of course, Jesus is NOT the Angel of God as you claimed but just conjectures of the people whom you are so fond of listening to. You really need to stop listening to these conjectures and start thinking on your own faculty of intelligence which GOD gave you.

And about ‘Even the disciples were surprised when Jesus resurrected’, were the disciples surprised because Jesus resurrected or were they surprised because the man they thought was crucified and killed was now standing in front of them very much alive without any marks of being crucified ?? If you want to know whether Jesus was crucified, died and then resurrected or not, you should listen to what Jesus said AFTER his supposedly ‘crucifixion and resurrection', and Jesus NEVER mentioned any of that AFTER his supposedly ‘crucifixion and resurrection’.

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Question: "Who is the angel of the Lord?"

Answer: The precise identity of the “angel of the Lord” is not given in the Bible. However, there are many important “clues” to his identity. There are Old and New Testament references to “angels of the Lord,” “an angel of the Lord,” and “the angel of the Lord.” It seems when the definite article “the” is used, it is specifying a unique being, separate from the other angels. The angel of the Lord speaks as God, identifies Himself with God, and exercises the responsibilities of God (Genesis 16:7-12; 21:17-18; 22:11-18; Exodus 3:2; Judges 2:1-4; 5:23; 6:11-24; 13:3-22; 2 Samuel 24:16; Zechariah 1:12; 3:1; 12:8). In several of these appearances, those who saw the angel of the Lord feared for their lives because they had “seen the Lord.” Therefore, it is clear that in at least some instances, the angel of the Lord is a theophany, an appearance of God in physical form.

The appearances of the angel of the Lord cease after the incarnation of Christ. Angels are mentioned numerous times in the New Testament, but “the angel of the Lord” is never mentioned in the New Testament after the birth of Christ. There is some confusion regarding Matthew 28:2, where the KJV says “the angel of the Lord” descended from heaven and rolled the stone away from Jesus’ tomb. It is important to note that the original Greek has no article in front of angel; it could be “the angel” or “an angel,” but the article must be supplied by the translators. Other translations besides the KJV say it was “an angel,” which is the better wording.

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Skywalker said:

The Angel of the Lord is Jesus. Who is the angel of the Lord? | GotQuestions.org

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