Leviticus and Deuteronomy mentioned what relatives are forbidden to marry because the Caananites married relatives and God didn't want them to be influenced by the Caananites. They mentioned enough details to show people that incest was forbidden, they didn't need to mention every type of person who marrying would be inappropriate.
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Leviticus and Deuteronomy mentioned what relatives are forbidden to marry because the Caananites married relatives and God didn't want them to be influenced by the Caananites. They mentioned enough details to show people that incest was forbidden, they didn't need to mention every type of person who marrying would be inappropriate.
I think that was Jesus's one sane moment since he was baptized by John. From baptism to the moment of death, he was going through one extended period of spiritual ecstasy. Then he snapped back to reality when the moment of truth came. At that time, he was alone and in pain. And then he realized how crazy he'd been - but it was too late.
What evidence is there that supports the gnostic interpretation of the teachings of Jesus? Why The Gnostic Gospels Aren’t Reliable Sources | Reasons for Jesus
rosends
Well-Known Member
You have moved too far afield. I think you might just be fishing for responses.
Who was talking about the gnostics?
Why do you keep bringing up topics no one was talking about?
I actually find it intriguing that there does appear to be a remnant of the idea that Jesus had 'lost it',
Mark, 3:21,
And when his family heard it, they went out to seize him, for they were saying, “He is out of his mind.”
And that's when he essentially disowns his family. I find the language used here pretty strong: they wanted to 'seize' him. Other translations use 'take custody' or even 'take charge' etc. And these are folks who love him saying this, not just some random 'evil Pharisees'.
“Yet he opened not his mouth.” Like Isaiah 42:2, “He will not cry aloud or lift up his voice, or make it heard in the street.” This does not mean that he suffered in total silence. What it indicates is his humility and acceptance of his destiny.
You mentioned Jesus had spiritual ecstasy. That concept is more consistent with the dervishes and gnosticism, than the Bible.
Outside of Jewish law people sometimes consider step family to be close relatives. Jewish law didn't make exceptions for that standard.
dybmh
דניאל יוסף בן מאיר הירש
That doesn't work either unless the rest of the verses aren't literal either. Salvation theology requires the verses in Isaiah to be literally true. No literal bearing of iniquity, no literal suffering, no literal messiah.
When Jesus carried his cross, he was silent.
rosends
Well-Known Member
Yes, "outside of Jewish law". Thank you.
dybmh
דניאל יוסף בן מאיר הירש
Reread Matthew. He cried out loudly twice. The Suffering Servant doesn't match the gospel account.
It's a dead end. Without Isaiah, Christian salvation theology has no basis in The Torah.
Is everything done in the law based on whats on the books? Judges have to follow parameters but decisions aren't just based off the books they are also based on precedent and common sense.
Jesus did not lift up his voice means humility and acceptance of his destiny.
dybmh
דניאל יוסף בן מאיר הירש
acceptance of his destiny? not from the gospel account:
"45From the sixth hour until the ninth hourg darkness came over all the land. 46About the ninth hour Jesus cried out in a loud voice, “Eli, Eli,h lema sabachthani?” which means, “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?”
The gospel doesn't say: "My God, My God, I accept my destiny".
Some of the prophecies will be fulfilled when the Messiah returns. Does the Old Testament truly predict a second advent of the Messiah? | GotQuestions.org
Jesus was expressing his feelings of being separated from the Father, while accepting his destiny. Why did Jesus say, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?" | GotQuestions.org
dybmh
דניאל יוסף בן מאיר הירש
He spoke, he was not silent, he was not mute. That's verse 7. He never has children, that's verse 10. Chapter 53, is not about him.
But let's zoom out.
Have you noticed that the Book of Isaiah says that God alone is the savior? This is reinforced multiple times using diverse language throughout the book. In addition to this, there is a "suffering servant". That means that if Jesus is the suffering servant, then he can't be God or the savior. Trying to equate these three renders the verses about the suffering servant incoherent.
Because of this, it makes no sense at all to use Isaiah's suffering servant to justify salvation from the cross. According to Isaiah, salvation comes from God alone, not from the suffering servant.
That is why is the suffering servant is the Messiah, the Messiah would have to be God.