Well, before we open
that particular can of worms, we could start with the issue of modern Christians interpreting a set of laws that were, in all likelihood, historically intended to be applied to the Judaic priesthood (hence the name
leviticus or
torat kohanim, "laws of the priests") as broadly applicable social mores. What's the point in hewing so strongly to the strictures of an ancient priesthood when very few other regulations from that book are being taken seriously by modern day Christians?
EDIT: Once we're past that first barrier,
@Unveiled Artist already pointed out a few key issues here. Homosexuality, in modern parlance, tends to be understood as the
exclusive attraction to people of one's own gender, but this passage is entirely about specific sexual
practices being reserved only for male-on-female couplings, with the strange turn of phrase, "as he lies with a woman", which could be interpreted as all forms of erotic intimacy, or only specific forms of sexual practices that the ancient Jews considered appropriate only for male-on-female encounters.
So not only does this passage not talk about
homosexuality by our modern understanding of the phenomenon, it's not even clear what its actual subject matter is without proper historical context.
Can you see how this gets iffier and iffier the further we go into detail about this? It's far from being as pat as "the Bible wants to punish homosexual practice", and in fact a close reading suggests several possible interpretations that have nothing to do with homosexuality as us modern folks understand it.
And any deeper knowledge of the actual historical and cultural context of these items - which, I want to stress again, we do not have - could throw any possible interpretation only further out of sync with the commonly accepted interpretation that is currently popular among modern Christian fundamentalists.