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Does the Bible really say "homosexuals"?

Does the Bible use that word (homosexuality or homosexual)?

  • Total voters
    16
T

thomas t

non-denominational Christian
Often, on Christian message boards, they cite Bible verses that, for some reason, put the word "homosexuality" in some verses.
And yet, homosexuals can't reply. At least in one big Christian message board. The usual bullying...

Well now to the question:

Does it make sense to attribute this word to a Bible verse, when the concept of what homosexuality really is... did not emerge until the late 19th century? If I am informed right?

In my opinion it does not.

Here's a list of versions that use "homosexuality":
1 Timothy 1:10 for the sexually immoral, for homosexuals, for slave traders and liars and perjurers, and for anyone else who is averse to sound teaching
Quite a few.

Some versions also use that word for the OT.
 
SigurdReginson

SigurdReginson

Grēne Mann
Premium Member
Hmmm... Well, the bible can't use "homosexuality" as a word, since it's a modern English word.

That said, there are plenty of verses that disparage homosexuality in the bible. One that comes to mind is Leviticus 20:13.

"If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall surely be put to death; their blood is upon them."

Edit: Then again, those verses are for male homosexuality. I can't think of any verses about female homosexuality being a bad thing...
 
Subduction Zone

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
thomas t said:
Often, on Christian message boards, they cite Bible verses that, for some reason, put the word "homosexuality" in some verses.
And yet, homosexuals can't reply. At least in one big Christian message board. The usual bullying...

Well now to the question:

Does it make sense to attribute this word to a Bible verse, when the concept of what homosexuality really is... did not emerge until the late 19th century? If I am informed right?

In my opinion it does not.

Here's a list of versions that use "homosexuality":
1 Timothy 1:10 for the sexually immoral, for homosexuals, for slave traders and liars and perjurers, and for anyone else who is averse to sound teaching
Quite a few.

Some versions also use that word for the OT.
Click to expand...
This is an example why context is often more important for translation than word for word. Yes, at the times of the writing of the Bible the term "homosexuality" did not exist. But the concept could be passed along. You can see a bit of a range in translation for the verse you cited here:

1 Timothy 1:10 for the sexually immoral, for homosexuals, for slave traders and liars and perjurers, and for anyone else who is averse to sound teaching
 
U

Unveiled Artist

Veteran Member
thomas t said:
Often, on Christian message boards, they cite Bible verses that, for some reason, put the word "homosexuality" in some verses.
And yet, homosexuals can't reply. At least in one big Christian message board. The usual bullying...

Well now to the question:

Does it make sense to attribute this word to a Bible verse, when the concept of what homosexuality really is... did not emerge until the late 19th century? If I am informed right?

In my opinion it does not.

Here's a list of versions that use "homosexuality":
1 Timothy 1:10 for the sexually immoral, for homosexuals, for slave traders and liars and perjurers, and for anyone else who is averse to sound teaching
Quite a few.

Some versions also use that word for the OT.
Click to expand...

I'm not sure the history, but homosexuality,the context, was different in 1950s (US) than today as science got smarter. Biblically, the word has a different definition that is no longer applicable by law, medicine, identity, strick definition, and in context. It's an empty word used to seem people as sinners.

The bible and generational bias bastardize the word homosexual. Yes/no...depends on if you define it as an action. Not sure why authors translate it by that word. I'm sure hebrews and greeks haven't heard the concept of sexual orientation.
 
U

Unveiled Artist

Veteran Member
SigurdReginson said:
Hmmm... Well, the bible can't use "homosexuality" as a word, since it's a modern English word.

That said, there are plenty of verses that disparage homosexuality in the bible. One that comes to mind is Leviticus 20:13.

"If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall surely be put to death; their blood is upon them."

Edit: Then again, those verses are for male homosexuality. I can't think of any verses about female homosexuality being a bad thing...
Click to expand...

If you go a bit different perspective, that's not homosexuality just sexual promiscuity between to gay, straight, bi, or asexual males (who knows)

The bible doesn't say whether the males are straight,gay, or bi. So, how would using the word in scripture equate to what the word actually means?
 
Subduction Zone

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
Unveiled Artist said:
If you go a bit different perspective, that's not homosexuality just sexual promiscuity between to gay, straight, bi, or asexual males (who knows)

The bible doesn't say whether the males are straight,gay, or bi. So, how would using the word in scripture equate to what the word actually means?
Click to expand...
The interpretations were likely done by straight guys, and to many of us once you are gay, you are gay. At least that was the way it was in the good old days. Now excuse me I need to get back to my show, Father Knows Best is on.
 
SigurdReginson

SigurdReginson

Grēne Mann
Premium Member
Unveiled Artist said:
If you go a bit different perspective, that's not homosexuality just sexual promiscuity between to gay, straight, bi, or asexual males (who knows)

The bible doesn't say whether the males are straight,gay, or bi. So, how would using the word in scripture equate to what the word actually means?
Click to expand...

Maybe?... But should people be put to death for promiscuity, or any other sex act between 2 consenting adults? Seems a bit excessive to me.
 
Colt

Colt

Well-Known Member
The Bible says men aught not lay together. That means having sex together.

The Bible was written by heterosexual men presumably in an age when homosexuality was a sin.
 
Last edited:
SigurdReginson

SigurdReginson

Grēne Mann
Premium Member
Unveiled Artist said:
Yes. But why do many both for and against homosexuality equate it to behavior when talking about it? Shouldn't we (lgbtq) be correcting their views not reinforcing it?
Click to expand...

I definitely agree.

People don't talk about it in the same way they talk about heterosexuality. In fact, I haven't heard or seen the word "heterosexual" in quite a while.

I guess the problem comes when dogma enters the equation. Coming from a very dogmatic past, I remember how important that dogma was to me then. It usurps one's better judgement.

Thankfully there are folks out there who have a healthier grasp of their faith than I did.

Edit: oh, nevermind. @cOLTER used the word there. :D
 
U

Unveiled Artist

Veteran Member
cOLTER said:
The Bible says men aught not lay together. That means having sex together.

The Bible was written by heterosexual men presumably in an age when homosexuality for a sin.
Click to expand...

I wonder. Why are some rules in the bible culture relevant (so christians don't believe they apply to them) and others are not (using the word homosexuality in the bible means the word used should be an eternal fit to all people who are homosexual)?
 
U

Unveiled Artist

Veteran Member
If homosexuality is a sin, why did we (US) change sodomy laws (https://www.aclu.org/other/why-sodomy-laws-matter)?

Do christians disagree with the change and feel people should be punished (godly and legally) for homosexual actions?

Wouldn't it be a contradiction if a christian doesn't support sodomy laws but then support god's laws that homosexuality is a sin and god punishes those with whom sins against him?
 
SigurdReginson

SigurdReginson

Grēne Mann
Premium Member
ecco said:
Why should any rational person care about what a bunch of old men wrote 2000 or 3000 years ago?
Click to expand...

Well, the majority of the planet, my country, my place of work, and my entire family do. It kind of matters to me too, by proxy. Whether we like it or not, we have to all learn to live with each other, and finding the best rout to that end goal matters.

Hmmm... You've given me something for my brain to chew on @Unveiled Artist.
 
Trailblazer

Trailblazer

Veteran Member
Subduction Zone said:
This is an example why context is often more important for translation than word for word. Yes, at the times of the writing of the Bible the term "homosexuality" did not exist. But the concept could be passed along. You can see a bit of a range in translation for the verse you cited here:

1 Timothy 1:10 for the sexually immoral, for homosexuals, for slave traders and liars and perjurers, and for anyone else who is averse to sound teaching
Click to expand...
The translation you cited is the NIV. Look at how different the KJV translation is.

10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;
 
Trailblazer

Trailblazer

Veteran Member
SigurdReginson said:
Maybe?... But should people be put to death for promiscuity, or any other sex act between 2 consenting adults? Seems a bit excessive to me.
Click to expand...
No, nobody should be put to death for any sexual behavior, and that is why God updates the laws in every age.
As the times change and people change religious laws need to be updated. This is logic 101 stuff.

“The second part of the Religion of God, which refers to the material world, and which comprises fasting, prayer, forms of worship, marriage and divorce, the abolition of slavery, legal processes, transactions, indemnities for murder, violence, theft and injuries—this part of the Law of God, which refers to material things, is modified and altered in each prophetic cycle in accordance with the necessities of the times.” Some Answered Questions, p. 48
 
Subduction Zone

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
Trailblazer said:
The translation you cited is the NIV. Look at how different the KJV translation is.

10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;
Click to expand...
I did not cite any single source. Click on the link. Yes, one example was chosen, but the link goes to a whole range of interpretations including the one that you cited.
 
Subduction Zone

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
ecco said:
Why should any rational person care about what a bunch of old men wrote 2000 or 3000 years ago?
Click to expand...
We have to care because unfortunately there are some people that believe that nonsense who try and sometimes succeed into using those beliefs to affect the lives of others. The good news is that more and more those people are reduced to merely sitting in the corner mumbling to themselves. But recently in the U.S. there were reversals under the Trump administration with the poor excuse of "freedom of religion".
 
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