I would like to add that at least ancient Israel was never part of a 'slave-trade business' as was the United States.
In Scripture, masters should treat slaves like hired help - Leviticus 25:39-40; Exodus chapter 21.
As Scripture shows, that does Not mean they all ended up treating slaves that way.
If an Israelite priest bought anyone that person ate just as the priest and his family ate according to Leviticus 22:11; Exodus 12:43-44
In Israel No slaves worked on the Sabbath - Exodus 20:10; Deuteronomy 5:14
However, if a person was lazy he could easily get himself into debt and end up being a slave. - Proverbs 12:24B
Notice that Leviticus is referring to brothers" those of Israel" who are taken into slavery. You are ignoring the acquisition and rules of non hebrew slaves.
Leviticus 25: 39-46:
39 “‘If any
of your fellow Israelites become poor and sell themselves to you, do not make them work as slaves. 40 They are to be treated as hired workers or temporary residents among you; they are to work for you until the Year of Jubilee. 41 Then they and their children are to be released, and they will go back to their own clans and to the property of their ancestors. 42
Because the Israelites are my servants, whom I brought out of Egypt, they must not be sold as slaves. 43 Do not rule over them ruthlessly, but fear your God.
44 “‘Your male and female
slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45
You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as
inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.
In the OT there is a distinction between the laws that apply to Hebrew slaves and those that apply to Non hebrew slaves. The Israelites were allowed to participate in the slave trade, at least in buying foreigners as permanent property. Many laws, such as freeing the freeing of slaves laws, specifically mentions Israelite slaves, brothers, and not foreign slaves. That is reprehensible. The only reason why God didn't want Israelites to be other people's slaves was because he brought them out of Egypt.
As for slaves not working on the sabbath and how much they eat, that is a pretty low bar. You are assuming here that because Israelite slavery was not as harsh or extensive like the trans atlantic slave trade, that somehow it is excusable. In fact slavery in general in the middle east wasn't as bad as that.
To pick and choose could lead to a person trying to establish their own righteousness as a standard.
Yes, one persons literal text to another might be figurative. For example: Ecclesiastes 1:4 B that 'Earth abides forever'.
Some say it is figurative meaning it's 'people' Not the planet that abides forever. ( people without a planet ?)
I've also been told that the meek have already inherited the Earth - Psalms 37:9-11; Matthew 5:5
( Makes me wonder: are the jails full of humble meek people ? )
Yes, this especially happens in prophetic books. That is why there are different interpretations, with some clearly not fitting the context. Then people hop to other unrelated scriptures to proof text.
Your Ecclesiastes example is good. The context is actually contrasting human generations passing away to the earth which lasts forever. It would make no sense if earth applies to people as well. Yet the same people take new heaven and earth to mean literal heaven and earth in a prophetic book full of symbolism.
Same with the meek shall inherit the earth. As you say, the meek haven't.
I would apply the same to people saying that 144 000 is a literal 144 000 yet also say that the tribes are symbolic. A literal number made out of a symbolic people with no actual reason to say why the number is literal in a prophetic book. Others say that the tribes are literal and the number is symbolic, yet the tribes aren't the same. Either way it cherry picking what suits an agenda.
Also, to note there is a difference between being homosexual and the practice of homosexual activities.
In Scripture ' fornication ' (porneia) is wrong for anyone.
Yes, but being against either sexual orientation or action is being anti homosexual.
Genuine ' wheat ' Christians would pick and choose Jesus' agenda. It's the fake ' weed/tares ' who don't. - Matthew 13:27-30
So, each decide about Jesus' agenda.
There are lots of barriers to this actually. One is that people do not like reading and the other is feelings. Most Christians, which includes JW's, follow their beliefs based off feeling and not Bible study. They don't know for themselves what Jesus agenda is, but follow the agenda of the men that they follow. This is especially evident when they are willing to change their own views as soon as the leader/s change theirs. It shows that they are thrown around like sheep with a confused shepherd and that they do not have solid grounding of bible understanding.
