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The thief on the cross and jesus.Did they go to paradise underground?

cataway

Well-Known Member
You are going to be red in the face when you find out Hades is the grave. A hole doug in to the ground to put a dead person
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
1) @Hockeycowboy said to @Brian2 : "Messing with the translation'? Jesus was in the ground / in Hell for 3 days. (Post #72)

2) Clear asked Hockeycowboy : "Can you give me a specific reference to the specific scripture you are referring to when you say Jesus was "in the ground" for 3 days?" (Post #74)

3) HockeyCowboy answered : “Psalms 16:10, which Peter quoted in Acts 2”


I'd like to make a very discrete point here.

Psalms here, in early Judeo-Christian religion is not speaking of being “in the ground’ for 3 days. There is no mention of either “ground”, “dirt”, etc., and no mention of any time period. Psalms speaks of the , early Judeo-Christian doctrine that ones’ soul (or spirit….) would not be left in HADES.

My tongue exhulted and yet also my flesh shall lodge in hope. For you have not abandoned my soul in Hades, and neither shall you allow (give) your holy one to see corruption. Psalms 15:10 LXX

You referred to Peter quoting psalms 16:10 (Mas, or 15:10 in LXX). Peters speech has to do with the resurrection of Jesus from Hades/Sheol/World of spirits, etc. (whatever name one applies) and his resurrection

Acts 2:24 is Peter speaking to men about Jesus "....Whom God hath raised up having loosed the pains of death because it was not possible that he should be holden of it. For David speaketh concerning him, I forsaw the Lord always before my face, for he is on my right hand, that I should not be moved. Therefore did my heart rejoice and my tongue was glad. Moreover also my flesh shall lodge in hope because thou will not leave my soul in Hades neither wilt thou suffer thine holy one to see (experience) corruption.

While the scripture refers to Hades, it does not mention being in the “ground”.

The distinction between the ground/soil/dirt and Hades is not merely semantics.

For example, when a sailor died at sea accidently, and their body was dumped overboard, the body is never “in the ground” but the spirit still went to Hades in early Christian worldviews.

Similarly, individuals who die in a fire and whose bodies are burned up are not buried. There is nothing to put "in the ground” in such as case, yet their spirits still went to Hades in early Christianity.

I think this is one of the distinctions between @Brian2 and your comments.

Brian2s interpretation is a product of the earlier Judeo-Christian interpretation and religion and your interpretations are a product of a different and a much more modern Christian religion which was created in a larger age with different doctrines and different interpretations than that of the early Christians.

I am not saying the earliest Christians were right and you are wrong, merely that the two religions are different in their interpretations and their doctrines.


In any case HockeyCowboy, I hope your spirituals journey is wonderful and insightful and full of joy.


Clear
ειδρνεφιω


@cataway replied : "You are going to be red in the face when you find out Hades is the grave. A hole doug in to the ground to put a dead person" (post #81).

Hi @cataway;

One of the problems in historical religious discussions is often differing theology caused by differing interpretations.

For example, your comments stem contextually from the meaning the Jehovahs Witness created for the ancient word "Hades" (which they describe in their own literature)
My comments stem contextually from the meaning of "Hades" held by the early Judeo-Christians (which they describe in their own literature).

These are two different Hades from two different religions having two different interpretations.

Keep in mind that your religion is NOT the same religion as that of the earliest Christians who wrote and described their religion and their beliefs and their interpretations.
Your religion is a relatively modern religion (1800s) with it's own modern beliefs and interpretations compared to that of the ancient Christianity with their ancient set of beliefs and interpretations.

For example, your religion and it's interpretations are not found in the early Historical Christian literature where the earliest Christians witness to their earliest beliefs and interpretations.

It is these historical differences that will keep your religion from being historically coherent with the religion of early Judeo-Christianity.

This specific point does not indicate that the earliest and more original Christianity is superior to yours, merely that your religion is different in it's doctrines and interpretations that the early Judeo-Christian religious movement.


Clear
ειφιφιφιω
 
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cataway

Well-Known Member
@cataway replied : "You are going to be red in the face when you find out Hades is the grave. A hole doug in to the ground to put a dead person" (post #81).

Hi @cataway;

One of the problems in historical religious discussions is often differing theology caused by differing interpretations.

For example, your comments stem contextually from the meaning the Jehovahs Witness created for the ancient word "Hades" (which they describe in their own literature)
My comments stem contextually from the meaning of "Hades" held by the early Judeo-Christians (which they describe in their own literature).

These are two different Hades from two different religions having two different interpretations.

Keep in mind that your religion is NOT the same religion as that of the earliest Christians who wrote and described their religion and their beliefs and their interpretations.
Your religion is a relatively modern religion (1800s) with it's own modern beliefs and interpretations compared to that of the ancient Christianity with their ancient set of beliefs and interpretations.

For example, your religion and it's interpretations are not found in the early Historical Christian literature where the earliest Christians witness to their earliest beliefs and interpretations.

It is these historical differences that will keep your religion from being historically coherent with the religion of early Judeo-Christianity.

This specific point does not indicate that the earliest and more original Christianity is superior to yours, merely that your religion is different in it's doctrines and interpretations that the early Judeo-Christian religious movement.


Clear
ειφιφιφιω
earliest Christianity ?? which would be ,what? 200 years after the death of Jesus ? which would be more than enough time for odd understandings to get excepted. fact is hades is that place where the dead are put. in time the earth consumes them the bodies are gone ,destroyed. you dont want to go there i dont want to go there. however there is a very good chance we all will. only by the power of God through Jesus the Christ can any one be saved from the clutches of Hades
 

Moses_UK

Member
43 And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise.

That looks right to me. It is amazing that some want to change the position of the coma to after "today" and end up with a sentence that says something else. But of course the common saying of Jesus in the gospels is "verily I say unto thee" and is not "verily I say unto thee today".

How do you know the quote is correct? all the gospels contradict the event so which is true?
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
There are opinions on whether the Luke 16 story of the rich man and Lazarus in Hades is more than a fictional story. I think that is based on the fact that the name of the Lazarus is given.
But I suppose those opinions do not really matter.
I do agree however with the idea that Jesus was teaching around things the people would have been familiar with (conscious existence in an afterlife realm called hades/sheol). The parable was not specifically saying that hades in that sense was a reality, but there was no denial of it's reality and possibly just an acceptance of it's reality by Jesus.
I don't think that Jesus was purposefully wanting to confuse the people He was speaking to and us with such a parable.
When I think about the parable I notice that Jesus actually told specifics about the realm (there is a gulf between the part of hades that Lazarus was in and the part that the rich man was in etc) and I doubt that He would have done that if hades does not exist as a place for the departed spirits of the dead.

There are passages that lend to the idea of the lake of fire that is in Revelations. The idea of Hell and Hades comes from myths and get used as terms for it but that does not mean the myths are accurate. So if the rich man is in a hot place, we select a term to express that.

The thing is that there is no time context despite the fact that the story has a past tense. For God everything has already happened. The context is that of Jesus teaching and this is a story with a moral.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
You are right. In ancient Jewish concept (mostly Pharisaic in nature) Hades is partitioned or zoned. Everyone will descend to Hades once dead, unless he didn't taste death. Elijah and Enoch didn't taste death thus they are not in Hades. Bad souls go to a place of torment. There is also a place called the Lake of Fire reserved for use after the judgment. There's yet another place usually called Abyss or pit with a specific meaning to indicate a location for the fallen angels to be chained. By extending the concepts there is also a place for the good souls, which is the paradise. However there's yet another paradise not in Hades. It's in the third heaven or called Abraham's Bosom. That's where Elijah and Enoch stay.

I believe I wouldn't put too much stock in Abraham's bosom. No doubt Abraham was buried and slept with the body until he could be reincarnated. So it is more likely that Jesus is talking about a future event. There is no need for that place to be any different than it will be for the rest of us who are saved. We know Elijah was taken up from the earth but we don't know where he went anymore than we know where Jesus went when He ascended. We don't know where paradise is or even if one goes there bodily or simply by spirit. I am sure of one thing: God is judge of where people are going despite whatever they think about where they are going.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
and i said "how is it that you did not know in the ground" did you never read the bible ?

I believe I have read it but do not remember any reference to that. That is why you need to point it out to refresh our memories. I remember His body was laid in a tomb and three days later the tomb was found to be empty. I doubt anyone was checking before that to see if the body was still there. It would not surprise me if a gospel writer speculated that he was in the ground 3 days but that isn't the same as fact.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
1) Regarding Cataways Jehovahs Witness doctrines and interpretations :

Clear said : “…your comments stem contextually from the meaning the Jehovahs Witness created for the ancient word "Hades" (which they describe in their own literature)
My comments stem contextually from the meaning of "Hades" held by the early Judeo-Christians (which they describe in their own literature). These are two different Hades from two different religions having two different interpretations.

Keep in mind that your religion is NOT the same religion as that of the earliest Christians who wrote and described their religion and their beliefs and their interpretations.
Your religion is a relatively modern religion (1800s) with it's own modern beliefs and interpretations compared to that of the ancient Christianity with their ancient set of beliefs and interpretations.

For example, your religion and it's interpretations are not found in the early Historical Christian literature where the earliest Christians witness to their earliest beliefs and interpretations. It is these historical differences that will keep your religion from being historically coherent with the religion of early Judeo-Christianity.



Cataway replied : “earliest Christianity ?? which would be ,what? 200 years after the death of Jesus ? which would be more than enough time for odd understandings to get excepted.” (post #82)



Hi @cataway :

If you are unable to think historically, you will continue to offer historically inaccurate suggestions. If you ever decide to start to educate yourself about early Christianity and it’s doctrines and it’s interpretations, I suggest you start earlier than “200 years after Jesus died”.


You could, for example, study the literature that the writers of the New Testament refer to and quote in the New Testament that were written BEFORE Jesus was born.

You could start with Christian literature that was written concurrent with the New Testament. For example, Paul mentions his fellow worker Clement in Phillipians 4:3. Clement, who was a convert of the Apostle Peter and a colleague and fellow worker with the Apostle Paul wrote his own letter to the Corinthians before 70 a.d.. This was the same time period when the writer of revelations was alive and writing his apocalypse.

You could study the didache which was written before 100 a.d.

You could study 2nd Clement, written while the writer could have known a living apostle.

You could study the apostolic Fathers, all written when the writer could have known an apostle.

You could start with literature which either WAS in the earliest Christian bibles (Clement - C. Alexandra, P6, barnabas, hermas, etc.) or which are still INSIDE eastern Christian bibles (The larger ethiopian canon still has 81 books in it versus the western 66 books).

All of these and much, much more, will describe the earliest Christianity with it’s doctrines and interpretations that are very different than those of the religion created by the Jehovahs Witnesses almost 2000 years later.

The literature will show what doctrines remained constant over time and which doctrines changed and how they evolved.



2) THE SILLY SUGGESTION THAT ONE CAN USE THE PASSING OF TIME AS AN INDICATION OF RELATIVE ERROR IN CHRISTIAN THINKING

Cataway replied : “earliest Christianity ?? which would be ,what? 200 years after the death of Jesus ? which would be more than enough time for odd understandings to get excepted.” (post #82)


IF you are using the passing of time as an indication of degree of apostasy, consider that less than 40 years had passed between Clements writings and the death of Jesus.

IF, you insist that by 200 years later, the Christians had time to adopt errors, then how many errors could have been adopted by the Jehovahs Witness movement that was separated by 1800 years from the death of Jesus. How much apostasy could THEY have adopted, given 1800 years?

In early Judeo-Christian religion, Hades/Sheol/world of Spirits/the Grave/Death etc. was the place where the cognisant spirits of the dead were while they awaited resurrection and judgment.

The religion created by the Jehovahs Witnesses adopted different doctrines.

In the religion they created :
1) there is no spirit inside the body of individuals and
2) Once individual die, there is nothing left of that individual. They are Annihilated.

Because of such very basic differences, the Jehovahs Witness religion can never historically cohere with the religion of the early Judeo-Christians.

We have no indication that Paul's coworker Clement suddenly turned apostate in his literature, nor in similar works.

The reason Jehovahs Witnesses are unable to use any significant amount of similar early literature is because the earliest literature contradicts and undermines significant Doctrines the Jehovah's Witnesses created and adopted.

They simply cannot use much of the earliest Judeo-Christian literature without running into theological conflicts regarding very basic doctrines.


Clear
ειφυφυνεω
 
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kjw47

Well-Known Member
Luke 23:42-43.Makes me think jesus and the thief went to paradise the same day they both died together.Because of Eph 4:7-10 it makes me think they went underground.And there jesus lead the souls of the righteous dead to heaven to be with God.I think they(jesus and the thief)went to hades together and not right to heaven to see God.Because of Jh:3:13.In Acts 2:27-31 it talks about jesus's soul going to hades.And not being abandoned in hades.Or seeing corruption.I think hades was a temporary paradise for everyone who made it to the goodside.Or acted as a hell for you if you didn't make it to the goodside.The bad side was for the bad people(in God's eyes)like in Isa 14:9-11 for the king of babylon.Or was good for people like samuel.Like in 1 Sam 28:1-20.


A good point you bring up.
The Fact is--- There is a comma error in that passage in trinity translations--The following.

Truly i tell you, today you will be with me in Paradise. = error

Truly i tell you today, you will be with me in paradise= correct.

The bible is 100% clear--Jesus was in the grave( Hades) for 3 days. He could not be in Paradise that day of his death.

Revelation is clear on the ressurection, It occurs after Har-mageddon occurs.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Hi @cataway ;


I claimed the the religion created by the Jehovahs Witnesses in the 1800s is historically incoherent to and historically irreconcilable with the religion of the earliest Judeo-Christians as described in their literature.

In post #90 (above) @kjw47 gives us a very good example of this historical incoherence and why Jehovahs Witness religion cannot enter into the early Christian historical literature.




1) DIFFERENCES IN TYPE AND TIME OF RESURRECTION BETWEEN EARLY CHRISTIANITY VERSUS THE JEHOVAHS WITNESS RELIGION

@Frank Goad asked in the O.P. regarding the promise Jesus made to the thief Dymas, that they would be in paradise together. The traditional promise reads as follows : “And Jesus said unto him, “Verily I say unto you, today you will be with me in paradise.” Luke 23:43

My point does not regard the recent debate as to where the comma goes in this sentence, but rather my point concerns the type and timing of the resurrection described by early Judeo-Christians versus the doctrine of the resurrection adopted by the Jehovahs Witness religion.

The Jehovahs Witness, @kjw47 states : “Revelation is clear on the ressurection, It occurs after Har-mageddon occurs.” (post #90)

The early Christians took Matthew 27:52 at face value in their belief and descriptions and witnesses that a resurrection of many of the Christian Saints took place at the time of Jesus’ resurrection.

For example : Matthew 27:52, says that, after the resurrection of Christ : “… the tombs were opened and many bodies of the saints which slept arose. And, coming out of the tombs after his rising (Jesus), went into the holy city (Jerusalem), and appeared to many." (gk Και τα Μενμεα ανεωχθησαν και πολλα κεκοιμημενων αγιων ηγερθη και εχελθοντες εκ των μνημειων μετα την εγερσιν αυτου εισηλθον εις την αγιαν πολιν και ενεφανισθησαν πολλοις)


In early Christian theology, only the body of Jesus died. His spirit was active and continued to accomplish further works he came to accomplish.
In early Christian theology, Matthew 27:52 meant that it was not only Jesus who resurrected, but a resurrection of many of the saints took place at the same time Jesus was resurrected.




A) The difference in TYPE of resurrection between early Christianity versus the religion created in the 1800s by the Jehovahs witnesses.

While the Jehovahs Witness resurrection is a resurrection of clones or copies of the original Jesus and the rest of mankind (since the original no longer exists at death in their theology).

The ancient version, however was a resurrection of the actual original spirits of the actual, original individuals that were resurrected into new bodies. The original, cognizant spirit of the original person did not die with the body.



B) The difference in TIMING of resurrection between early Christianity versus the religion created in the 1800s by the Jehovahs witnesses.

The Jehovahs Witness, Kjw47 describes the doctrine of the Jehovahs Witnesses created in the 1800, stating : “Revelation is clear on the ressurection, It occurs after Har-mageddon occurs.” (post #90)

The Earliest Christian religion in their literature describes in great detail that they believed the version of Matthew where many individuals were resurrected many bodies of the saints which slept arose. And, coming out of the tombs after his rising (Jesus), went into the holy city (Jerusalem), and appeared to many.”

If a family member had died and was resurrected and returned to us in like manner that Jesus had returned to the disciples, one would expect the early literature to reflect this witness and, importantly, the early Christian literature describes their early faith in detail, even relating specific individuals who had died and returned to life and who described their cognizant existence while in the world of spirits (or Hades / Sheol / world of the dead spirits / etc.)


My point is NOT that the more original Christian religion is better or worse than the religion created by the Jehovahs Witnesses almost 2000 years later.

The point is that one can never create a historically coherent version of Christianity in the 1800s that coheres with that described in the earliest Christian literature without paying attention to historical literature.

OR, one must somehow discount and discard the importance of early Judeo-Christian literature in some way. This is usually done by claiming the early Christians apostatized or their literature represents apostasy.


In any case, a non-historical religion is unable to use this literature to support such base doctrines.

On the OTHER HAND. Those Christianities that ARE similar to the earliest Christianities are best able to use the ancient Judeo-Christian literature. This principle means something important.


Whatever readers choose to believe and however they choose to interpret the sacred texts, I hope all have good spiritual journeys and find happiness and fulfillment in this life.


Clear
εισεφυδρω
 
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cataway

Well-Known Member
Hi @cataway ;


I claimed the the religion created by the Jehovahs Witnesses in the 1800s is historically incoherent to and historically irreconcilable with the religion of the earliest Judeo-Christians as described in their literature.

In post #90 (above) @kjw47 gives us a very good example of this historical incoherence and why Jehovahs Witness religion cannot enter into the early Christian historical literature.




1) DIFFERENCES IN TYPE AND TIME OF RESURRECTION BETWEEN EARLY CHRISTIANITY VERSUS THE JEHOVAHS WITNESS RELIGION

@Frank Goad asked in the O.P. regarding the promise Jesus made to the thief Dymas, that they would be in paradise together. The traditional promise reads as follows : “And Jesus said unto him, “Verily I say unto you, today you will be with me in paradise.” Luke 23:43

My point does not regard the recent debate as to where the comma goes in this sentence, but rather my point concerns the type and timing of the resurrection described by early Judeo-Christians versus the doctrine of the resurrection adopted by the Jehovahs Witness religion.

The Jehovahs Witness, @kjw47 states : “Revelation is clear on the ressurection, It occurs after Har-mageddon occurs.” (post #90)

The early Christians took Matthew 27:52 at face value in their belief and descriptions and witnesses that a resurrection of many of the Christian Saints took place at the time of Jesus’ resurrection.

For example : Matthew 27:52, says that, after the resurrection of Christ : “… the tombs were opened and many bodies of the saints which slept arose. And, coming out of the tombs after his rising (Jesus), went into the holy city (Jerusalem), and appeared to many." (gk Και τα Μενμεα ανεωχθησαν και πολλα κεκοιμημενων αγιων ηγερθη και εχελθοντες εκ των μνημειων μετα την εγερσιν αυτου εισηλθον εις την αγιαν πολιν και ενεφανισθησαν πολλοις)


In early Christian theology, only the body of Jesus died. His spirit was active and continued to accomplish further works he came to accomplish.
In early Christian theology, Matthew 27:52 meant that it was not only Jesus who resurrected, but a resurrection of many of the saints took place at the same time Jesus was resurrected.




A) The difference in TYPE of resurrection between early Christianity versus the religion created in the 1800s by the Jehovahs witnesses.

While the Jehovahs Witness resurrection is a resurrection of clones or copies of the original Jesus and the rest of mankind (since the original no longer exists at death in their theology).

The ancient version, however was a resurrection of the actual original spirits of the actual, original individuals that were resurrected into new bodies. The original, cognizant spirit of the original person did not die with the body.



B) The difference in TIMING of resurrection between early Christianity versus the religion created in the 1800s by the Jehovahs witnesses.

The Jehovahs Witness, Kjw47 describes the doctrine of the Jehovahs Witnesses created in the 1800, stating : “Revelation is clear on the ressurection, It occurs after Har-mageddon occurs.” (post #90)

The Earliest Christian religion in their literature describes in great detail that they believed the version of Matthew where many individuals were resurrected many bodies of the saints which slept arose. And, coming out of the tombs after his rising (Jesus), went into the holy city (Jerusalem), and appeared to many.”

If a family member had died and was resurrected and returned to us in like manner that Jesus had returned to the disciples, one would expect the early literature to reflect this witness and, importantly, the early Christian literature describes their early faith in detail, even relating specific individuals who had died and returned to life and who described their cognizant existence while in the world of spirits (or Hades / Sheol / world of the dead spirits / etc.)


My point is NOT that the more original Christian religion is better or worse than the religion created by the Jehovahs Witnesses almost 2000 years later.

The point is that one can never create a historically coherent version of Christianity in the 1800s that coheres with that described in the earliest Christian literature without paying attention to historical literature.

OR, one must somehow discount and discard the importance of early Judeo-Christian literature in some way. This is usually done by claiming the early Christians apostatized or their literature represents apostasy.


In any case, a non-historical religion is unable to use this literature to support such base doctrines.

On the OTHER HAND. Those Christianities that ARE similar to the earliest Christianities are best able to use the ancient Judeo-Christian literature. This principle means something important.


Whatever readers choose to believe and however they choose to interpret the sacred texts, I hope all have good spiritual journeys and find happiness and fulfillment in this life.


Clear
εισεφυδρω
occam's razor.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
In post #91, Clear made the points that the Jehovahs Witness doctrine of resurrection is different than that of early Judeo-Christianity in both type of resurrection and timing of resurrection


1) The TYPE of resurrection
The early Christians
taught : Resurrection was of the original person
The Jehovah Witness religion created in the 1800s teaches : Resurrection was of a copy or a clone of the original (since the original person no longer existed after death).


2) The TIMING of resurrection
The early Christians taught : Some individuals resurrected at the time Jesus was resurrected as per Matthew 27:52 : "...many bodies of the saints which slept arose. And, coming out of the tombs after his rising (Jesus), went into the holy city (Jerusalem), and appeared to many.”
The Jehovah Witness religion created in the 1800s teaches : Resurrection will occur after armegeddon. (Kjw47, post #90)


@cataway responded : “occam's razor.”


Hi @cataway :

If “Occams razor” says that the more simple among answers is preferred, are you saying that to destroy an original person and to then re-create a clone or copy of personality and knowledge and experience and morals and emotions and loyalty and all other characteristics that make up a personality as well as creating a clone or a copy of a physical body is more simple than simply placing a spirit into a new body?

Can you explain what this cryptic answer you offered readers means?

If you are arguing “simplicity”, then why is it not just as simple to resurrect a body at the time of Christs resurrection as to resurrection others later?

What do you mean by your reference to “occams’ razor” as a response to the point that the religion created by the Jehovahs Witnesses in the 1800s is a different religion than the religion of the earliest Christians they themselves describe in their literature?


Clear
εισιδρσιω
 

cataway

Well-Known Member
In post #91, Clear made the points that the Jehovahs Witness doctrine of resurrection is different than that of early Judeo-Christianity in both type of resurrection and timing of resurrection


1) The TYPE of resurrection
The early Christians
taught : Resurrection was of the original person
The Jehovah Witness religion created in the 1800s teaches : Resurrection was of a copy or a clone of the original (since the original person no longer existed after death).


2) The TIMING of resurrection
The early Christians taught : Some individuals resurrected at the time Jesus was resurrected as per Matthew 27:52 : "...many bodies of the saints which slept arose. And, coming out of the tombs after his rising (Jesus), went into the holy city (Jerusalem), and appeared to many.”
The Jehovah Witness religion created in the 1800s teaches : Resurrection will occur after armegeddon. (Kjw47, post #90)


@cataway responded : “occam's razor.”


Hi @cataway :

If “Occams razor” says that the more simple among answers is preferred, are you saying that to destroy an original person and to then re-create a clone or copy of personality and knowledge and experience and morals and emotions and loyalty and all other characteristics that make up a personality as well as creating a clone or a copy of a physical body is more simple than simply placing a spirit into a new body?

Can you explain what this cryptic answer you offered readers means?

If you are arguing “simplicity”, then why is it not just as simple to resurrect a body at the time of Christs resurrection as to resurrection others later?

What do you mean by your reference to “occams’ razor” as a response to the point that the religion created by the Jehovahs Witnesses in the 1800s is a different religion than the religion of the earliest Christians they themselves describe in their literature?


Clear
εισιδρσιω
it means you are making things far more difficult than it really is . likely because of ignorance and or because you want some thing different . you's don't know all the facts so too then tie your disjointed ideas together . things get made up, making it more difficult to understand .

to receive a resurrection is a marvelous gift . with your death you have paid the price of sin ,you have been acquitted .to live again as if born again, a new start ,with out sin ,a clean slate at the time of resurrection . will you try earnestly to live with out sinning or will you refuse and again implement your own want and desires after resurrection ?? if you did , then comes the second death
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Hi @cataway

Cataway said : "it means you are making things far more difficult than it really is ." (post #94)
I simply pointed out that the Jehovahs' Witness religions doctrines regarding resurrection are different than the resurrection described by the earliest Christians.

Do you think this is a "difficult" or a "complicated" point?
How would you make that historical principle more simple to understand?



Cataway said : "...things get made up, making it more difficult to understand." (post #94)
Can you explain what "things" were "made up"?



Clear
εισισισεω
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member


Cataway said :
"it means you are making things far more difficult than it really is ."

"...things get made up, making it more difficult to understand." (post #94)

Clear responded :
"I simply pointed out that the Jehovahs' Witness religions doctrines regarding resurrection are different than the resurrection described by the earliest Christians.
Do you think this is a "difficult" or a "complicated" point?
How would you make that historical principle more simple to understand?

Can you explain what "things" were "made up"?(post #95)


Cataway responded :

"I never said anything about the JW's I spoke from the Bible not religion...." (post #96)


Cataway, you were never accused of saying anything "about the JW's".
It was ME who spoke of the difference between the religion created by the Jehovahs Witnesses and the religion of early Christians regarding the resurrection.

How is this a "difficult" or a "complicated" point?
What "things" do you think were "made up"?

Please, Try to be as logical and as coherent and clear as you can be in your response.

Clear
ειακειφιω
 
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YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
@cataway replied : "You are going to be red in the face when you find out Hades is the grave. A hole doug in to the ground to put a dead person" (post #81).

Hi @cataway;

One of the problems in historical religious discussions is often differing theology caused by differing interpretations.

For example, your comments stem contextually from the meaning the Jehovahs Witness created for the ancient word "Hades" (which they describe in their own literature)
My comments stem contextually from the meaning of "Hades" held by the early Judeo-Christians (which they describe in their own literature).

These are two different Hades from two different religions having two different interpretations.

Keep in mind that your religion is NOT the same religion as that of the earliest Christians who wrote and described their religion and their beliefs and their interpretations.
Your religion is a relatively modern religion (1800s) with it's own modern beliefs and interpretations compared to that of the ancient Christianity with their ancient set of beliefs and interpretations.

For example, your religion and it's interpretations are not found in the early Historical Christian literature where the earliest Christians witness to their earliest beliefs and interpretations.

It is these historical differences that will keep your religion from being historically coherent with the religion of early Judeo-Christianity.

This specific point does not indicate that the earliest and more original Christianity is superior to yours, merely that your religion is different in it's doctrines and interpretations that the early Judeo-Christian religious movement.


Clear
ειφιφιφιω
Basically the beliefs of Jehovah's Witnesses are in the Bible. Now it is true that Jesus took the disciples aside and explained illustrations to them. The major application of Christian principles do not change.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Hi @YoursTrue, I hope your holiday season was wonderful.



YoursTrue said : “Basically the beliefs of Jehovah's Witnesses are in the Bible. “ (post #98)



1) USING DIFFERENT INTERPRETATION OF BIBLICAL TEXT TO SUPPORT MULTIPLE, CONFLICTING DOCTRINES


Most Christianities, even those with conflicting doctrines, find evidence to support their conflicting doctrines in whatever bible they have.

One reason that strongly conflicting beliefs can come from similar bibles is because differing interpretations allow them to support differing beliefs from these similar texts.


a) Recent examples of different doctrines supported by different interpretations of similar text :

1) The Jehovahs Witness religion abandoned the concept of a spirit placed in man and replaced it with a purely physical nature.

2) The Jehovahs Witness religion abandoned the ancient concept of Hades/Sheol/world of spirits as a way station to which these spirits went after their bodies died and replaced that doctrine by the physical grave and complete annihilation of the person.

3) The Jehovahs Witness religion abandoned the resurrection of this same spirit into a new body and replaced it by a recreation of a clone or copy of the original person that is resurrected. (since the original is annihilated)

4) The Jehovahs Witness religion abandoned the doctrine of resurrection of individuals at the time Jesus was resurrected and placed the resurrection only after Armageddon. (post #90)


These and other new doctrines differ from the basic doctrines of the early Judeo-Christians in profound ways.

The Jehovahs Witnesses, and other Christianities support conflicting set of beliefs by having different interpretations of similar biblical texts.




2) WHOSE SYSTEM OF INTERPRETATION DO WE USE TO CREATE DOCTRINE? THAT OF ANCIENT HISTORICAL CHRISTIANITY OF THAT OF A MODERN RELIGION?


The HISTORICAL observations concern WHOSE context and WHOSE interpretation does one use in determining what a scripture means?

Does one use the context of the ancient Christians to determine what they, themselves meant by their own texts or does one use a modern, non-historical context to determine meaning of ancient texts?

I think the ancient context will most accurately reflect the ancient meanings.

My historical point is that the earliest Christians such as those the apostles taught and their earliest converts together with THEIR interpretations and base beliefs, have a higher likelihood of representing early and authentic Christian doctrine than do the interpretations developed by Christian movements of almost 2000 years later.

While I have not proposed that the earliest Christian religion was more or less true than any other version of Christianity, on the other hand, I have not seen any advantages to the theories of modern Christian movements over the earliest Judeo-Christian religion or their worldviews.

For example, I do not see any moral or theological advantage of the modern Jehovahs’ witness interpretation and their theory that annihilation at death and the resurrection of a clone or copy of the original person over the early Judeo-Christian concept that bodies die and the spirit of the original person is resurrected.


Clear
εινετζειω
 
Last edited:

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
Hi @YoursTrue, I hope your holiday season was wonderful.



YoursTrue said : “Basically the beliefs of Jehovah's Witnesses are in the Bible. “ (post #98)



1) USING DIFFERENT INTERPRETATION OF BIBLICAL TEXT TO SUPPORT MULTIPLE, CONFLICTING DOCTRINES


Most Christianities, even those with conflicting doctrines, find evidence to support their conflicting doctrines in whatever bible they have.

One reason that strongly conflicting beliefs can come from similar bibles is because differing interpretations allow them to support differing beliefs from these similar texts.


a) Recent examples of different doctrines supported by different interpretations of similar text :

1) The Jehovahs Witness religion abandoned the concept of a spirit placed in man and replaced it with a purely physical nature.

2) The Jehovahs Witness religion abandoned the ancient concept of Hades/Sheol/world of spirits as a way station to which these spirits went after their bodies died and replaced that doctrine by the physical grave and complete annihilation of the person.

3) The Jehovahs Witness religion abandoned the resurrection of this same spirit into a new body and replaced it by a recreation of a clone or copy of the original person that is resurrected. (since the original is annihilated)

4) The Jehovahs Witness religion abandoned the doctrine of resurrection of individuals at the time Jesus was resurrected and placed the resurrection only after Armageddon. (post #90)


These and other new doctrines differ from the basic doctrines of the early Judeo-Christians in profound ways.

The Jehovahs Witnesses, and other Christianities support conflicting set of beliefs by having different interpretations of similar biblical texts.




2) WHOSE SYSTEM OF INTERPRETATION DO WE USE TO CREATE DOCTRINE? THAT OF ANCIENT HISTORICAL CHRISTIANITY OF THAT OF A MODERN RELIGION?


The HISTORICAL observations concern WHOSE context and WHOSE interpretation does one use in determining what a scripture means?

Does one use the context of the ancient Christians to determine what they, themselves meant by their own texts or does one use a modern, non-historical context to determine meaning of ancient texts?

I think the ancient context will most accurately reflect the ancient meanings.

My historical point is that the earliest Christians such as those the apostles taught and their earliest converts together with THEIR interpretations and base beliefs, have a higher likelihood of representing early and authentic Christian doctrine than do the interpretations developed by Christian movements of almost 2000 years later.

While I have not proposed that the earliest Christian religion was more or less true than any other version of Christianity, on the other hand, I have not seen any advantages to the theories of modern Christian movements over the earliest Judeo-Christian religion or their worldviews.

For example, I do not see any moral or theological advantage of the modern Jehovahs’ witness interpretation and their theory that annihilation at death and the resurrection of a clone or copy of the original person over the early Judeo-Christian concept that bodies die and the spirit of the original person is resurrected.


Clear
εινετζειω
Actually annihilation at death is not a term I would use. What death is is a cessation of life. Annihilation would be complete destruction. God can remember every hair on our heads, so He can bring back the dead to life if He desires.
I used to celebrate holidays of all sorts, not really caring what they represented as long as it seemed ok. And I could go to a party and give or receive gifts, didn't care what was happening as long as there was no trouble. I no longer do because #1, the world isn't so merry now, and #2, more importantly, given the misleading information about the holidays and the origins of them, makes me move away from their celebration.
Every day is something wonderful to me to consider.
 
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