rosends
Well-Known Member
I disagree about the name Yeshua. It isn't a name. There is something similar which is a nickname.
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How can a Jew reject Jesus as the Messiah?
- Thread starter ayin
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- jesusisyhwh
That verse says nothing about sin being "passed down" at all.
Jesus is derived from the Greek form of the Hebrew name Yeshua, which is related to the biblical name Joshua.
rosends
Well-Known Member
That's your logic? That someone wouldn't stick to his beliefs to the degree that he would go to jail for it if it wasn't true?
Jews died because they wouldn't give up their belief that Jesus was nothing. Therefore, as they wouldn't preach that Jesus was nothing and die for it if it wasn't true, Jesus was nothing.
Right?
rosends
Well-Known Member
No, there is no Hebrew name Yeshua. There is a Hebrew nicknake which is similar to that. Is that what you mean?
Romans 5:13 14 says, "For sin was in the world before the law was given; but sin is not taken into account when there is no law. Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who is a pattern of the one to come."
That verse refers to sin being passed down from the father, and we are sinners because we have sin in us, even if we never committed a sin, which refers to children.
I heard a story in history class about Christians who executed people who didn't convert. That is contrary to the teachings of Jesus. Jesus left people alone who didn't want to receive the message of the gospel. Mark 6:11. "And if any place will not welcome you or listen to you, leave that place and shake the dust off your feet"
Jeshua was not the name of Jesus, and Yasu is Arabic.
rosends
Well-Known Member
and yet, here you are.
rosends
Well-Known Member
I didn't say "Jeshua" so I'm not sure what you are responding to or why Arabic is relevant.
I believe the name of Jesus was Yeshua, not Joshua.
The verse says "death reigned" over those who did not sin. It does not say sin is passed down genetically, much less exclusively from dudes.
This is quite far afield from the intent of the OP. Perhaps start another thread about it, if you're interested.
Redemptionsong
Well-Known Member
You claim that Bethlehem is not to be understood literally but as a representation of an individual, Jesse. I think, however, that the comparison between Zion and Bethlehem is not a fair comparison. Zion is regularly referred to as having spiritual significance. Bethlehem, on the other hand, is a birth place on earth, not a spiritual city.
As you well know, Bethlehem has a long biblical history, beginning as the burial place for Rachel [Genesis 35:19]. It appears again in the story of Elimelech and Naomi [book of Ruth]. It was there that Naomi gave birth to Obed, who was the father of Jesse. A long line of Bethlehemites, even before the birth of David (about 1085 BCE).
In all the references to Bethlehem that I have read, Bethlehem is always referred to as a place, not as a person.
This makes it pretty clear to me that Micah 5:2 must be referring to Bethlehem as the birth place of the Messiah.
In Genesis 15 God came to Abraham in a vision, when Abraham was given a covenant. Genesis Chapter 15
That's different from the verse in the Old Testament where Abraham met God in Genesis 18:1-2.
God is the angel of the Lord. The angel of the Lord speaks as God, identifies Himself with God, and Satan stood at the right hand of the angel of the Lord in Zechariah 3:1.
It's the Shekinah. As the text tell us, no-one can see G-d and live, not even Moshe, so if one assumes the text actually means what it says, no-one has even seen G-d.
Not sure what this has to do with what I said?