You can't just associate any pagan divine trio with Trinity. You prove no influence. Just similarity.
I think you can, especially when you consider that out of the three main Abrahamic faiths, Jews do not have a trinity, and Islam does not have a trinity....only Christendom (created later than first century Christianity) teaches that God is not "one" but "three". If Paganism has three, then I think we can see a clear adoption here....as clear as other 'adoptions' such as the cross, immortality of the soul, hellfire, and the celebrations of Christmas and Easter. None of these are based on scripture but are grafted in by spurious translation or adopted traditions.
Trinity is based on certain interpretation of Messiah and creative Wisdom (in the Bible), influenced by Greek concept of intermediary between God and world. - - > Logos in Gospel of John.
Where did the trinity come from? If it is not directly stated in the Bible, i.e. there is no direct statement from either God or Jesus that there are three equal and co-eternal parts to God....then where did the idea come from? Isn't it obvious? It was, after all, foretold that Christianity would become apostate.....and what greater apostasy can there be than to change the very nature of God?
Calling Jesus "The Word" (Logos) means essentially that he was God's spokesman as the "mediator" appointed by the Father so that communication with God could continue after the fall in Eden. He was in this position from the beginning of man's defection. Any time God spoke to sinful humans, it was by means of his Logos.
According to the Athanasian Creed, there are three divine Persons (the Father, the Son, the Holy Ghost), each said to be eternal, each said to be almighty, none greater or less than another, each said to be God, and yet together being but one God. Other statements of the dogma emphasize that these three “Persons” are not separate and distinct individuals but are three modes in which the divine essence exists. But this is
NOT a Bible teaching.
Genesis 4:25-26 says (Tanakh)
"25 And Adam knew his wife again, and she bore a son, and she named him Seth, for God has given me other seed, instead of Abel, for Cain slew him.
26 And to Seth also to him a son was born, and he named him Enosh; then it became common to call by the name of the Lord. "
The
Targum of Palestine comments on verse 26....saying:
“That was the generation in whose days they began to err, and to make themselves idols, and surnamed their idols by the name of the word of the Lord.”
After the deluge of Noah’s day the Babylonized pagans did the same by referring to their false gods also by the plural form of excellence,
elohim, god. (such as to the god Dagon at Judges 16:23-24 and the god Chemosh and the god Milcom at 1 Kings 11:33 and the god Baal-zebub at 2 Kings 1:2,3,16.)
In Noah’s history recording the days of Enoch, after idolatry had become practiced, the true worshipers frequently put a definite article
ha before
el or
elohim to indicate “the true God” Jehovah, as distinct from the false gods who were also being referred to as
el or
elohim but not as
ha-el or
ha-elohim. (Genesis 5:22; 2 Kings 1:6,9)
In the Greek we see a similar situation with regard to John 1:1....i.e. the use of the definite article to identify the true God as distinct from other 'gods' (mighty ones) The Greeks had no word for a specific god who did not have a name.....so they identified the then nameless God of the Jews with the definite article (the...ho).
Reading John 1:1 in a Greek Interlinear we see the definite article in the first instance, but not in the second, indicating two separate "mighty ones" (gods) but only one is "THE God".
A cursory reading of scripture does not always reveal the truth especially when bias was used in the early English translations.....all of which were produced by trinitarians. The KJV is the worst.