I don't really have a horse in this race - but I saw a few things on this last page that made me want to comment.
The Bible is about God's dealings with Mankind.
You try to disparage the record by claiming that those who lived in those times were "primitive" - but that could be said about any people from those ancient times.
The Lord Jesus Christ had no need to speak about homosexuality since the Jews had the Law of Moses - which condemned the practice - and they followed it.
The Lord Jesus Christ taught the people those things that their religious leaders
should have been teaching but weren't.
His biggest criticism of the Sadducees and Pharisees was their hypocrisy. They claimed to live and teach a certain way - but they didn't.
Also - are you trying to claim that the Lord's love for His disciple meant that He was homosexual?
Why do you assume that the Lord did not have a wife? Does the Biblical record claim that He did not have a wife?
Why do you assume that He could not have had a wife simply because no wife was mentioned in the record?
How many of the Apostles were married? Are you going to assume that if the record does not mention them having a wife that they
must not have had one?
The record doesn't mention any of them going BM either - but I'm not about to assume that they never did because the Bible doesn't emphatically say that they did.
This is just silly.
Yet - Paul did meet the Lord Jesus Christ - on the road to Damascus.
He claimed to King Agrippa that he asked the source of light and owner of the voice, "Who art thou, Lord? And he said,
I am Jesus whom thou persecutest.
But rise, and stand upon thy feet: for I have
appeared unto thee for this purpose, to make thee a minister and a
witness both of these things which thou hast seen, and of those things in the which I will appear unto thee;" (Acts 26:15-16) (Bold and italics added)
The Lord Jesus Christ appeared to Paul (then Saul) on the road to Damascus.
In his epistle to the Romans Paul clearly condemned homosexuality being practiced by both men and women.
"For this cause God
gave them up unto
vile affections:
for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
And
likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their
lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet." (Romans 1:26-27) (Bold and italics added)
Paul used the word "likewise" to relate these women's "acts against nature" to these men's "burning lust" for other men.
The "vile affections" and the "unseemly" work are references to the practice of homosexuality - for both men and women.
The verses in Romans 1 clearly teach against the practice of homosexuality for both men and women.
As to what was said in Leviticus - perhaps the original writers may not have considered sex between women actual sex because there would be no penetration or semen?
Either way - we can all agree that the Old Testament was written for a male reader. I mean - just look at the commandment about coveting -
"Thou shalt not
covet thy neighbour’s house, thou shalt not covet thy neighbour’s
wife, nor his manservant, nor his maidservant, nor his ox, nor his ***, nor any thing that is thy neighbour’s." (Exodus 20:17)
The "thou" and "thy" could be attributed to anyone - but the text only mentioned a "neighbor's wife" - would you argue that this meant that it was okay to covet a neighbor's husband?
It also seems to claim that a "neighbor" could only be a male since the "manservant", "maidservant", "ox", "***" and "any thing" are referred to as "his".
So - are you about to claim that women were never considered neighbors in the Old Testament?
It is clear - at least to me - that the Bible does not need to use both "he" and "she" to teach a universal doctrine.
There were lots of things the Lord Jesus Christ didn't talk about and there is no reason to assume that He was a homosexual or that he had no wife.
Well - according to the Bible - both murder and homosexuality belong in the category of "Sin".
That may be why he put them in the same "category" - but that is not to say that all sins are created equal.
He also mentioned drug use - do you not care that he did that too?
This is not accurate.
Statistically speaking - members of homosexual relationships are just as - if not more - likely to be victims of domestic violence by their romantic partners than those in heterosexual relationships.
A study conducted by the CDC in 2013 claimed that 44% of lesbians surveyed reported experiencing intimate partner violence.
Compare that to 26% of male homosexuals surveyed in the same study.
The CDC also claims that - without considering sexuality - 25% of all women experience at least one physical assault from a romantic partner.
Either way - homosexual women are more likely to be victims of domestic abuse by their same-sex partner than women in general.
Domestic violence in the United States - Wikipedia
Of course men and women are different biologically - (won't your transgender card be revoked for saying that?
) but men are not more likely to be violent than women.
Men and woman are just as likely to commit acts of violence against their partners - but women are more likely to actually get injured from the abuse and they are more likely to report the abuse than men are.
Basically - if both members of a heterosexual partnership were equally violent toward one another - the woman is more likely to report the abuse and sustain injuries from the abuse than the man.
That doesn't mean that one is more violent than the other - but one is more likely to ignore the abuse or not be injured by it.
It is entirely possible that men receive more violence from women than women from men.
The fact that men are less likely to actually get injured from or report the abuse does not mean women are less likely to abuse men.
This seems to be more of a cultural issue than a biological one.
So - first you were making assumptions because the text
didn't mention something - and now you are
adding things to the text to make your point?
No where in the verses you referenced does it mention "rotting corpses" walking the streets of Jerusalem.
After the Lord Jesus Christ rose from the dead (not as a "rotting corpse" but a Resurrected Being) - many "saints" also arose - because that was what had been promised to them.
The Lord Jesus Christ conquered death and those who had earned the privilege of being Resurrected after His own finally received their promised reward.
So - you make assumptions about what is not there and you also add when something isn't there.
You don't seem too reliable.
It is as real as the idea that homosexuality is sinful.
So - you decide for yourself.