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The Sin Of Sex Before Marriage

Faithofchristian

Well-Known Member
Your question is answered by the Bible quote. Consider in this that God is more friendly to us than we are to our own selves, so do not be so harsh in judgement of one own self, just keep trying to become better in mind and actions.

It takes practice, but sex has become such a distraction it is difficult to put it back into a healthy perspective.

The Baha'i writings confirm that a race of men will cone where their thoughts will conform to the passage in the Bible you have quoted, this is asked of us and the passage stands.

It is now a challenge for us to implement it into our thoughts and actions. Life is not about Lust, it is about finding the Love between our hearts, finding the good in each of us.

Regards Tony

There is no where in the bible.that two
man/ woman who are single can commit the sin of adultery.
That my dear friend sin of adultery only pertains to Marriage and not to those who are single.
 

TransmutingSoul

Veteran Member
Premium Member
There is no where in the bible.that two
man/ woman who are single can commit the sin of adultery.
That my dear friend sin of adultery only pertains to Marriage and not to those who are single.

That is your choice to see the passage that way. I wish you naught but the best.

Regards Tony
 

Faithofchristian

Well-Known Member
That is your choice to see the passage that way. I wish you naught but the best.

Regards Tony

no it's not my choice to see those passages that way.
Not when those passages are very clear on what they are saying.
No single person can commit adultery..
unless that single person has sex with a person who is married.
But other than that.
two single people can not commit adultery with each other in a sexual relationship.

When people starting saying..that two people that are single can not have sex before marriage and if they do..
they are committing adultery.
that's man's teachings and anything that the bible in anyway supports or teaches.

man's teachings will also say. If a man looks upon a woman to lust after her.
that man has committed Adultery with her in his heart.
Whether they are married or single..
that's a false teaching of man's..
There is no way possible for a single person to commit adultery..other having sex with a person who's married

Adultery only pertains to Marriage..
And not to a single person
 
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Ayjaydee

Active Member
I'd simply say that intercourse that leads to pregnancy and not then to marriage is an issue to me.

Generally speaking, there should be one wife per husband, but I don't think a widow should suffer alone. Polygamy in this case, might be permissible but I have heard of cases, even among the early Mormons where there was lots of pain. I just don't think that a woman in a marriage will tolerate another woman.
Many native Americans certainly did
 

tigrers2019

Member
The deliberate mistranslation of the Koine Greek word fornication (pornia) has damaged perhaps millions of lives through the centuries.

Before getting into the real meaning of this word, we must put ourselves into the days of the Old and New Testaments. In those days there were thousands of pagan temples in existence in that part of the world. As Keil-Delitzsch state in their commentary on Ezekiel 11:26-29 concerning the Old Testament word (zanah/taznuth translated fornication/idolatry, "Israel had adopted the practice of their pagan neighbors and erected idolatrous alters and little temples at all street-corners and cross-roads. The increase of the whoredom, i.e. of the idolatry and illicit intercourse with heathenish ways, is individualized in verses 26-29 by a specification of historical facts."
Fornication in the New Testament meant the same as in the Old Testament. There is just a Koine Greek word accurately describing what the Hebrew word meant.

The Apostle Paul stated in 1Cor 7:2 that to avoid this allurement, let each man have his own wife and each woman have her own husband. The marriage age in Israel for males was 16-18 yrs of age. The marriage age for females was 14-16. Therefore, there was not the problem of premarital sex of young adults that plague us today.
 

Valjean

Veteran Member
Premium Member
The Apostle Paul stated in 1Cor 7:2 that to avoid this allurement, let each man have his own wife and each woman have her own husband. The marriage age in Israel for males was 16-18 yrs of age. The marriage age for females was 14-16. Therefore, there was not the problem of premarital sex of young adults that plague us today.
Problem? Plague?
Isn't the problem more due to the taboo than to the sex itself?
 

tigrers2019

Member
Problem? Plague?
Isn't the problem more due to the taboo than to the sex itself?
What I was referring to about the 'plague was that in the eyes of fundamentalists, all this out-of-wedlock sex is a sinful epidemic.

The lack of understanding of how things actually were in the Old & New Testament days is incredible. For instance, if a young Christian or Jewish woman in those times lost her husband due to war, and she decided to get her sexual fulfillment at the local pagan temple with a priest and or priestesses, the sin would not have been in the sex, but the spiritual adultery. Because the sex taking place was an act of worship to the pagan god/goddess. This spiritual adultery was known in both the Old & New Covenants as fornication.
Today, married Christian couples understand that if they were to visit the ancient ruins of a pagan temple alone, that it would not be fornication for them to engage in sex while inside. I asked this question in a DEBATE a few years ago and my opponent could not answer this question because he had been so brainwashed over the years with the teaching that anything seen as sexually immoral was fornication.
 

Faithofchristian

Well-Known Member
The question is....is sex before Marriage a sin.
According to man's teachings it is...
But according to God's teachings it's not..

Let's take a look at some of the teachings of God's versus.. man's teachings.

In the Bible..in the book of
Deuteronomy 22:25-26--
25 But if a man find a betrothed damsel in the field, and the man force her, and lie with her: then the man only that lay with her shall die"

26 But unto the damsel thou shalt do nothing; there is in the damsel no sin worthy of death: for as when a man riseth against his neighbour, and slayeth him, even so is this matter"

A damsel being a virgin and a Betrothed damsel being...A fiancée is a woman engaged to be married. ... Fiancée, from mid-19th century French, means "a woman to whom one is betrothed Damsel" and is linked to the noun fiance, which refers to "a promise." In other words, a Betrothed damsel is a bride-to-be is promised to a groom-to-be in marriage, and vice versa.
Damsel -- Virgin
Betrothed -- bride to be..Fiance

Therefore if a man forces a woman who is a virgin or that is promise to another in marriage and forces her to have sexual intercourse with him.. that's a sin...But if she is not force into having a sexual intercourse...that is not a sin..

Now by what is written in verse 26...if the woman who is a virgin is not force but of her own free will lays with a man there is no sin.

What do you make of this?

The one thing to remember is that back at the time of Jesus Christ and disciple Paul all they had to go by is the old testament scriptures..The new testament scriptures had not been written yet...

Does the Bible teach that sex before marriage is a sin? A lot of people aren’t sure. That's because people are taught by man's teachings and not the teachings of Jesus Christ and the disciples teachings on the subject can a person who is single commit adultery.

According to man's teachings..a single person can commit adultery.

But according to God's teachings a single person can not commit adultery..
 
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Valjean

Veteran Member
Premium Member
The question is....is sex before Marriage a sin.
The question is.... does 'sin' exist, or is it a human invention? The term smacks of divine command morality.
According to man's teachings it is...
But according to God's teachings it's not..
What do we know of "God's teachings?" We can't even establish his existence. And the teachings attributed to him/her, by the various religions, are all over the board.

I suspect "God's teachings" are, in fact, man's teachings, couched in religious garb.
God's teaching always seem to reflect the conservative social values of the day.
Let's take a look at some of the teachings of God's versus.. man's teachings.
How are we to interpret "God's teachings?" You quote the Bible, but what about the Popol Vuh, the Guru Granth Sahib or Out of the Silent Planet? What makes the Bible an authoritative source?
 

Faithofchristian

Well-Known Member
The question is.... does 'sin' exist, or is it a human invention? The term smacks of divine command morality.
What do we know of "God's teachings?" We can't even establish his existence. And the teachings attributed to him/her, by the various religions, are all over the board.

I suspect "God's teachings" are, in fact, man's teachings, couched in religious garb.
God's teaching always seem to reflect the conservative social values of the day.
How are we to interpret "God's teachings?" You quote the Bible, but what about the Popol Vuh, the Guru Granth Sahib or Out of the Silent Planet? What makes the Bible an authoritative source?

what's makes the bible an
authoritative resource..
The scriptures being handed down from generation to generation to generation.
That today the scriptures has been compiled into one book..which is called the bible..
the definition of the word ( bible )
Simply means books being compiled into one book the bible.

We don't interpret God's word.
God does that himself..
As it is written...."Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scriptures is of any private interpretation" 2 Peter 1:20.
That means what God has given in prophecy, no man can by any means give their own private interpretation of prophecy..

"for the prophecy came not in old Time by the will of man, but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Spirit"
2 Peter 1:21.

What this means is that everything in the Bible was given by God himself to his holy men thru his Spirit.
 

Valjean

Veteran Member
Premium Member
what's makes the bible an
authoritative resource..
The scriptures being handed down from generation to generation to generation.
So a book becomes truer or more authoritative with age? Will The Harry Potter one day become an authoritative work of philosophy?
How about those writings older than the Bible? Are they more authoritative than the good book? Why not believe in Gilgamesh, Indra or Re?
That today the scriptures has been compiled into one book..which is called the bible..
So it's an anthology -- so what? There are lots of collated collections of this or that. And what about the scriptures that were left out? The final compilation was cherry picked to support a pre-decided doctrine, after all. It was voted on by a committee -- with an agenda.
the definition of the word ( bible )Simply means books being compiled into one book the bible.
And compiling a collection of works confers authority? How so?
We don't interpret God's word. God does that himself..
As it is written...."Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scriptures is of any private interpretation" 2 Peter 1:20.
That means what God has given in prophecy, no man can by any means give their own private interpretation of prophecy..
So Christianity is a single, monolithic religion, with no scriptural disagreement?
"for the prophecy came not in old Time by the will of man, but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Spirit"
2 Peter 1:21.

What this means is that everything in the Bible was given by God himself to his holy men thru his Spirit.
How so?
You're preaching again. You're quoting scripture to support scripture.
 

Faithofchristian

Well-Known Member
Your question is answered by the Bible quote. Consider in this that God is more friendly to us than we are to our own selves, so do not be so harsh in judgement of one own self, just keep trying to become better in mind and actions.

It takes practice to clean up our mind as sex has become such a distraction, it is difficult to put it back into a healthy perspective.

The Baha'i writings confirm that a race of men will come where their thoughts will conform to the passage in the Bible you have quoted, this is asked of us and the passage stands.

It is now a challenge for us to implement it into our thoughts and actions. Life is not about Lust, it is about finding the Love between our hearts, finding the good in each of us.

Regards Tony

There is no implementing not when it's an actual account..
To implement our thoughts and actions then it becomes our thoughts and actions.
But if it is clear evidence that it is written in the Bible. Then it's actually and not me implementing anything
 

Skwim

Veteran Member
From what I have read, single people having sex is supposed to be a consummation of marriage.
There can only be a consummation of marriage if marriage has already taken place, which means that all such married people would no longer be single.

.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
I believe the Holy Spirit considers it a sin. Logically speaking it is the same sin as adultery. The way that occurs is that one has had a sexual relationship with someone other than your wife. I thought that my desire to marry a person meant it was OK but the Holy Spirit called me to account for it anyway. Now having had 49 years of marriage I realized that I robbed myself of all the excitement that goes with getting married.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
Here in India, some rich people had more than one wife (generally two except in case of kings and nawabs) - and they lived together happily. The elder wife had the authority and was given much respect by everyone, even by the younger wife. Usually her son became the head of the family. The problem is because of the biological differences between genders. Sure, there was no peace in the family if they acted like competitors.

Pre-marital sex was prohibited in Hinduism also for many reasons, health and psychological. But marriage took place at an early age giving no time for pre-marital sex. My grandma was 7 years of age when she was married and my grandpa was 14. Of course, she came to the family only well after puberty.

I believe multiple marriages are adultery.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
From what I have read, single people having sex is supposed to be a consummation of marriage.
So single people have sex with multiple partners could be considered Whoredom or / and Adultery which are types of Fornication or Unlawful Intimacy.

I believe I tripped over the word fornication since I did not know the meaning of the word but here it is: Fornication is generally consensual sexual intercourse between two people not married to each other - Wikipedia.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
Why?
Scripture authors didn't. Why do you?
Tom

I believe this is what the Holy Spirit tells me. I believe it has a lot to do with the concept of illicit sex being confusion. Our God is not a God of confusion but is a God of rational thinking.
 
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